I thought I understood this, but now I’m getting confused.
So, let’s see.
Case one:
Alice and Bob get married. They meet Charlene, who soon moves in with them. Legally, Alice and Bob are wife and husband; Charlene is a mistress or housemate or something, but has no marriage rights; if Alice objected to the situation, Charlene could be out on her ass… but there is only one actual legal marriage involved, right?
Case two.
Alice and Bob get married. Bob meets and lives with Charlene in another city.
The situation is legally the same as case one whether Charlene and Alice know of each other, right?
Now, case three.
Alice and Bob get married. Bob meets Charlene in another city. Bob proposes marriage to Charlene, not telling her of Alice, and Charlene believes Bob is single. Bob is guilty of bigamy at this point, right?
If in case three, Alice, Bob and Charlene all knew of each other and were okay with Bob marrying both women, that would still be bigamy, correct?
I think part of the problem here is that the crimes gathered under the name of bigamy are at least in part misnamed. There should be a crime called ‘marriage fraud’, to cover cases where someone makes false representation of their marriage status.
If, as some posters have mentioned in the case of Utah, people are committing other crimes (welfare fraud?) under the cover of polygamy, those crimes should be dealt with as themselves.
If people still want to outlaw plural marriage simply because of the number of people involved, that should be done explicitly. IMHO, using the name of ‘bigamy’ in cases of marriage fraud confuses the number of participants with the nature of the act.