Although I’d consider myself a person interested in politics and pretty much up to date on current issues, I have to admit ashamedly that I don’t really understand the importance of one of the central (and most controversial) things in modern politics – the government budget.
I understand that in most jurisdictions government spending needs parliamentary approval, and that historically the power of the legislative assembly to control the revenues and spendings has been one of its most effective tools. But it seems to me that there are many instances where the government will spend, and will even have to, spend money no matter if the budget covers that or not.
As I understand, modern budgets draw a distinction between mandatory and discretionary spending. That makes sense; discretionary spending encompasses everything to which the government is not legally obliged. Let’s take the purchase of a police car as an example. That’s discretionary, so if the government wants to buy a new car (or a number of cars – the larger the entity which enacts the budget, the less likely it is that there will be a budget item for the purchase of one single car), it needs authorization to do so in a budget. Then again, I also read about appropriation acts, which I guess are acts authorizing a certain spending. What’s, then, the remaining function of the budget itself?
Things get more complicated with mandatory spending. Say there’s an act of legislation which entitles everybody who meets certain requirements to receive welfare. Certainly the government will have to pay that welfare to anyone who meets these requirements, and it can be sued for it if it refuses to pay. That’s why I don’t understand why the budget, which is enacted before the period it covers, contains a certain sum for welfare payments. The budget makers can’t know in advance how many people will be welfare recipients in the fiscal year to come. What happens if the total amount of welfare paid exceeds the amount authorized in the budget? Surely welfare recipients will have to get their money. Or vice versa, if the total amount is less than what had been anticipated, what happens to the surplus? Doesn’t that practically abolish the principle that only parliament (or Congress, or whatever it’s called in the particular jurisdiction) may authorize spending? One might say in this case that there still is parliamentary control over the monies, since it was the legislature itself which enacted the welfare legislation in the first place; but what about instances where the government is liable for damages which have been caused unlawfully by some government agency? In this case, damages will have to be paid, because the government will have to meet its legal obligations, no matter what the budget says.
And what happens if there’s no budget at all, for example because in obe year it’s particularly controversial, so the legislature doesn’t find a compromise until after the fiscal year begins? In that case, there is no spending authorized at all; but the work the government has to do continues, and you can hardly shut down all agencies, so what is done in this case?
It seems to me that government budgets are more an estimated prognosis of future revenues and spendings, but they can’t be fully binding because that would not be practicable. Anyone can enlighten me on that?