Your proposals present us with two problems:
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Despite your persistent efforts to restate what you do mean, all of your definitions continue to come across as claims that Jews have higher IQs. Even when you open a statement with a disclaimer that that is not what you mean, your statment uses words that convey exactly that idea all over again.
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Your evidence suffers from a rather large number of preconceptions. Equating Nobel prizes with intellect is probably a valid beginning. However, stepping away from that raw observation to link the number of winners from any ethnic group that happens to supply winners ignores all the other factors that go into the selection process–factors which might skew the results rather badly. (We had a thread discussing some of those phenomena, just a few weeks ago.) The Nobel selection committee tends to choose people whose accomplishments have “stood the test of time.” For most of its history, the selection process was composed of white, Northern European males, submitting nominations from other white, Northern European males for accomplishments by white, Northern European and North American males. Women, who had generally been excluded from science education until around 30 years ago, have fewer representatives. Men and women from areas outside Northern Europe and North America were rarely nominated. (This does not have to be any example of malicious bias. It merely means that the network of people living in a particular part of the world were, prior to the explosion of telecommunication and rapid world travel, simply unaware of the accomplishments of people in more distant lands. (And to the extent that European colonialism suppressed the possibilites for non-white, non-European people to develop their talents, that would still not be the “fault” of the Nobel committee.))
So, when we look at the Nobel winners to draw conclusions about ethnic identity (or sex), we have to recognize that there was a built-in selection bias against many groups from the beginning. Any action that excludes one or more groups from a selection pool will exagggerate the effect on the “survivors” of that exclusion process.
So why have Jews dominated the (European/North American) selection process for the Nobels? The most likely preliminary explanation is that there are simply a lot of Jews employed in those fields that draw the attention of the Nobel committee. Then we move to why are so many Jews involved in those fields?
My assertion is that they have a culture that encourages investigation. (I may be wrong, but I have at least some evidence to support my hypothesis.)
In contrast, you provided
So what does “more skilled” mean? You stated that it is the ability to learn and reason, the capacity for knowldge and understanding. In what way is this not a description of an innate ability? In what way would you distinguish this from IQ? If you are not talking about an inborn characteristic, just what are you talking about?
And “more skilled” than whom? The general population? Some number of researchers and workers in similar fields of study? The fact that you make the claim that they are "more skilled’ (rather than better educated) clearly implies a belief that they have some innate characteristic that gives them “more skill.” What is it?