Romans was written around 60AD I think, and contains the clearest examples of condemnation of gay sex in the NT. My question is, what do we know about attitudes toward gay sex in that time and place more generally (i.e. outside Christian circles).
My impression is that it was generally disapproved, but was engaged in as a religious practice via “temple prostitution,” and also that some “man-boy” relationships were winked at among the military and nobility, and that sex acts in both contexts (i.e. temple, and nobility/military) were likely to be at least implicitly coercive.
Is that a completely skewed impression? I have no idea where I got it.