Yes, and both glamour and grammar come from the same Latin root, but that doesn’t have much of an effect on what they mean now.
In modern terms, what does the word refer to?
Heck, I dunno. I always just assumed it (the “C” word) referred to the whole female groinal area, from perineum to just over the clitoral hood; and when I saw that the latin root referred to that area too, I just never thunked no more 'bout it.
Qadgop, what’s your source on this? I think you may be getting the etymoloyg of cunnilingus and cunt mixed up. According to the OED, the etymology is:
So cunt gets to English via the Nordic/Germanic language route rather than the Latin route. This matches what Websters Unabridged has:
To make it even more interesting, here is what Webster’s has for cot:
Which means that, etymologically speaking, cunt is very close to rectum.
BTW, the OED defines cunt specifically as:
Well, damn those germanic word-roots for messing up a nice straight latin derivation, anyway! I guess I made the fatal flaw of assuming that since “cunnus” = pudenda, per my handy latin/english online dictionary, that it was the origin of “cunt”. My bad. But it still won’t change what body parts I consider the term to refer to
What Jeff said.
Two mice are in a woman’s bedroom, watching her undress.
When she takes off her slacks, one mouse turns to the other and exclaims, “Wow, look at the legs on that human!”
The other shrugged and said, “Eh… I’m a titmouse myself.”
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