The title question relates to a current political controversy, but it is nonetheless a factual question.
It is blazingly obvious to me that the probability is quite low in the United States today. But I think a much better, supported, answer to the question must be possible other than to say “quite low.”
Most of the numbers needed to reason this out are in this article:
Coroner says baby with measles in Pennsylvania died of a ruptured spleen
The population of Pennsylvania is 13 million.
This next link is irrelevant to the factual question, but I think I have to include just to show why I am interested:
RFK Jr. says Shapiro’s office may have fabricated measles deaths
I also think that the fact a baby with measles died of a ruptured spleen (spleen problems being associated with measles) is irrelevant to the answer of the thread title question, much as it does illuminate that one case.
Just to hint at my incomplete thoughts here: If measles was extremely common – say, one percent of Pennsylvanians currently had the illness – it would then be plausible – even certain – that people in such a large group often died of something other than measles. It is because measles are still on the rare side that measles victims having died of something else is unlikely. Am I thinking correctly? And, regardless, can we put defensible numbers on the probability?