The DoJ defines sexual assault as sexual contact or behavior in the absence of explicit consent by the recipient.
I cannot find a definition of explicit consent anywhere, not from the DoJ, not at any reputable legal dictionary website or even legal blog.
Any help here? I am looking for a factual answer not a discussion of the philosophy of consent.
Specifically I’m looking for a definition of the concept in the US at the federal level, though definitions in individual states could be relevant (particularly California…)
That’s an informational site. It’s not a legal reference. I don’t believe that term appears in the US Code. So the meaning of the phrase is the colloquial meaning as you read it. The actual US Code is below.
ETA: it’s pretty rare that these crimes will fall under federal jurisdiction so the wording of state statutes are usually more important.
Because it’s from the Office of Violence Against Women. Although it’s part of the Department of Justice it is not attached to an enforcement division. It’s role is advisory, training, grants etc. It has no need to give definitions in official legal jargon.
Sexual assault is not a crime the FBI or other federal agencies usually prosecute or investigate. The crimes are in the US Code because of the possibility of a crime happening on federal land under federal jurisdiction.
The exact meaning would be one for the lawyers to argue about. In this country, it is one step up from ‘implied’ consent. A woman who allows a man to share her bed may be seen as giving ‘implied’ consent to sex, but the mere fact of sharing a duvet does not mean ‘implicit’ consent.