Hi
I have a. few questions regarding classical Greek vis-as-vis ancient Rome.
What was the status of Classical Greek as an administrative language during the Roman empire until 476 AD?
When was classical Greek at its height among the Western Romans and when did it decline as an administrative/official language?
I look forward to your feedback.
Is this rather simplistic?
https://brainly.in/question/10933233
Latin and Greek were the official languages of the Roman Empire, but other languages were important regionally. Latin was the original language of the Romans and remained the language of imperial administration, legislation, and the military throughout the classical period.
Read more on Brainly.in - Why latin and greek languages were used in roman administration? - Brainly.in
In the Western Roman Empire, while Greek was spoken by the elite and a good number of common people as well, Latin was the language of law and government.
In the East, of course, Greek was a common first language and used as a lingua franca, but Latin was still the language of the legal system until around 600 AD.
Thanks zimaane, but was Greek prioritised in certain areas over Latin in the Western Roman Empire at any time, and if so until when?
No, Greek was never used as an administrative language in the Western Roman Empire.
Latin was the lingua franca in the West, and all administration was in Latin. Greek was the lingua franca in the East, but Latin was used as an administrative language there as well as Greek.
Upper-class and well-educated people usually knew both Latin and Greek, but in the West Greek was only used as a language of literature and philosophy.
Where did the border between the languages pass? Somewhere in the Balkans?
Yes, Macedonia and Thrace had a strong Greek influence before, and remained mainly Greek speaking. Areas further north and further from the Black Sea, like Moesia, Dacia, Illyricum, Pannonia, had been ‘barbarian’ before, and became mostly Latin speaking after the Roman conquest. But it varied over time. Later, with the Byzantine Empire dominating the area, it became more Greek.
Oh, you must mean the Jirecek Line.
Interesting. I’d never heard of it. The wiki says it was “originally used by Czech historian Konstantin Jireček in 1911”.
It also says:
I think the answer is, ‘It was more complicated than that’. (As it usually is, in any question about history). It also varied century after century, as different areas came under different control.
There’s a long discussion here about the situation in 560 AD. And the Jirecek Line was hotly debated on this history forum in the context of Greek-Macedonian rivalry.
“Somewhere in the Balkans” is probably as good an answer as we need here. 
There was also something of a border in North Africa, between the western portion (modern day Tunisia and Algeria) where Latin was dominant and the eastern portion (Egypt) where Greek was preferred.
Strangely, these boundaries seem to roughly coincide with the overlap between the Roman Empire and the territory conquered by that Alexander guy.
[off-topic historical note]
When Europe began a “re-awakening” about 1100 AD, there was a demand for Latin versions of Classical Greek texts, for example the works of Aristotle and Ptolemy. It seems interesting that, for several reasons, the first Latin versions of these ancient Greek works were often translated from Arabic translations rather than from Greek versions. Among the famous Arabic-to-Latin translators of the late 11th and 12th centuries were Constantine the African, and especially Gerard of Cremona.
[off-topic historical note extension]
Much of this translation work was done in Toledo, Spain, where Arabic translations of the Greek classics were available, and there were large numbers of multilingual translators. Some of the translations were from Arabic to Castillian Spanish and then from Spanish to Latin, in instances where there wasn’t an Arabic/Latin bilingual available.