The Gospels don’t say that, nor do they connect a threat to the Temple to a charge of blasphemy.
(Mark 14:61-63)
Again the high priest asked him, “Are you the Christ,[6] the Son of the Blessed One?”
62"I am," said Jesus. “And you will see the Son of Man sitting at the right hand of the Mighty One and coming on the clouds of heaven.”
63The high priest tore his clothes. “Why do we need any more witnesses?” he asked. 64"You have heard the blasphemy.
(The Greek used here is "ho nios tou eulogetou, literally, "the son of the blessed’)
(Matthew 26:63)
The high priest said to him, “I charge you under oath by the living God: Tell us if you are the Christ,[5] the Son of God.”
(to which Jesus replies, “Legei auto,” “you say so yourself”)
(Luke 22:70)
They all asked, “Are you then the Son of God?”
He replied, “You are right in saying I am.” [actually, “Ho de pros autous ephe humeis legete oti ego eimi” “It is yourselves who say that I am.”]
Ana examination of all three of these verses tells us that it is the Priests, not Jesus, who verbalize the phrase “son of God.” The text we have quotes them in Greek (Nios tou Theou) so we don’t know what the Aramaic was precisely, but the known Aramaic phrase for “Son of God” is bar-Dalaha. The Hebrew phrase from scripture is ben-Eloihim.
I think it’s safe to say that the Priests used one of these constructions rather than verbalizing the Tetragammaton. Even if they had, it would have been their blasphemy not Jesus’.
Additionally, a Jew speaking the ineffable Name is not something minor to be eluded to or mentioned eliptically. This not some faux pas, to be covered by a timely joke from the hostess.
Umm, you do realize the the writers of the Bible go to great lengths to come up with other phrases & terms that can be used instead of “the Name” (since I hope Zev will come back here and post, I am not going to risk offending him by spelling out the name, although it doesn’t bother me in the least. But if he has any preferences on this, in us posting, please Zev- let me know. Usually I don’t care, but since I invited you here and ask for your wisdom, I am going to try and be polite.)
And- the preists CAN use “the name”- they’re preists . That’s the whole point. They can look upon the Ark, etc. Or is it just the High Preist? Zev? ;j
It seems quite possible that the Preists used the term 'the blessed" whereas Jesus (who thought he was talking about his Father you might note) might well have used ‘the name", and the writers used an euphemism. Note that "the name’ is not used AFAIK anywhere in the Bible. “Lord= Adonai” and 'gd= Elohim", and other euphemisms are always used.
And of course- at the trial- they very likely spoke Hebrew, but maybe Aramaic (which is similar)- not Greek. Thus, the Greek used is kinda pointless.
Actually, in the Bible, God’s name (the Tetragrammaton) is used quite frequently. It’s not used, however, in later works (such as the Talmud).
In any event, just to add to the point, just stating the Tetragrammaton itself is not blasphemy either (although the phrase that is does contain the Tetragrammaton).
Only the High Priest and only on Yom Kippur.
When the Torah is read today in public or whenever the Tetragrammaton is come across and must be read aloud, the term “Ad-o- noy” is used in most cases, although “E-lo- him” is sometimes used. The same would have been done by the kohanim in the Temple.
One point that I just thought of: is it possible that the high priests were Sadducees? If so, then all the discussion about what the Talmud says about the trial would be moot, as the Sadducees rejected the oral law.