Nominally, the UK is a constitutional monarchy. My question is not about what the UK is nominally but what it is de facto. If you wish to engage in axe grinding concerning the Queen or the insufficiency of representative democracy, please take it to another thread.
I realize that it may be difficult to put one particular date on Britain becoming a de facto democracy because of the incremental nature of change in just about anything British. The monarch’s power was limited as far back as 1215 and over the centuries Parliament got progressively more powerful.
The Cromwell kerfuffle put quite a dent into the English monarch’s power (and neck). When William III of Orange took the throne at the behest of Parliament in 1688, Parliament became more powerful than it had in the past. The Bill of Rights cemented the new balance of power.
The last time a monarch actually used it veto was in 1707.
Could Britain be said to be a de facto democracy in 1707? What powers/discrtionary spending did the monarch actually use from 1707 onward?
What steps did the enlargement of the political franchise take?