I am not sure if this qualifies as a “Great Debate”… maybe it would be presumptuous of me to say so? It would seem only a posteriori one could say “that was a Great Debate!” So, I would say, my only reason for posting here is that it is realated to some rather philosophical views of morality. I propose the subject and maybe someone can make this a Great Debate… maybe.
Anyway, follow me closely here… Often I see historical figures denigrated because they were racist or whatever. I contend they were the product of their times and should be judged by the standards of their times, not ours. But then I am told: “How can you say that? What’s wrong is wrong! It does not matter when or where!”
One example of an “absolute” wrong would be the equal but separate doctrine: Yes, blacks have the right to live elsewhere, just not next to me. Yes, blacks can have some jobs but not the ones that might compete with mine, etc.
Some people said that was morally wrong and should be ended because as human beings we are all equal in everything, including rights. Other people argued that, if blacks were given all civil rights, whites would lose jobs to blacks etc. Those in favor of civil liberties for all denied that but said, even if that were the case, equality is the morally right thing to do, even if there were a cost for others. In the end the civil rights movement won the day and today, any views in favor of discrimination would be considered unacceptable. But does that mean that the same views held 100 years ago were just as morally wrong? Each one of you decide for yourself.
Now…
Today, most people in the developed countries, people who consider themselves compassionate, people who would never deny anyone rights on account of race, sex or creed, will readily deny equal rights on account of nationality.
Does anybody see a contradiction here? I expect many, if not most, will not, and that reinforces my assertion that we are a product of our times. How can it be morally justified? How can you morally say “it is wrong to deny this man any rights for reason of race but it is fine to deny him some rights for reason of nationality”?
The same people who point out the American constitution says “all men are created equal” and sarcastically point out it meant “all men as long as they are white”, those same people see no contradiction in considering today “all men” means “all men as long as they hold American citizenship”.
My point is that we are a product of our times and our history and our culture. If we can understand discrimination on account of nationality today, how can we not understand discrimination on account of race 100 years ago? How do you think our discrimination today will be judged in the future?
There is a thread expressing some outrage about Mexicans who break the law by coming into the US without a visa. How is this different from the blacks who refused to sit in the rear of the bus? Will these Mexicans, criminals today, be the heroes and martyrs of tomorrow?
There is the argument that if we let them all in they would flood us, taking away our jobs etc. But, even if it were true, if it is wrong, it is wrong, regardless of cost. If it is admissible with Mexicans, why not with blacks?
Is it morally right that a Mexican who has lived “illegally” in the US for years, otherwise never breaking the law, working, paying taxes and being a responsible member of the community, has no right to remain if he is caught and can be deported while an American citizen can be a criminal and yet will always have the right to the benefits of being a US citizen?
I can imagine 100 years from now, while remaining separate countries, Mexico and the USA will have total freedom of movement of people, goods etc. The people of both countries then may well look back and call us immoral and all sorts of nasty things. What would you say to them?