So Trump imposes tariffs on imported steel, and China imposes tariffs on US veggies.
Assuming the importers, or someone along the chain from producer to consumer, pays the tariff, who gets it? The government? If so, does it go into the general fund? And wouldn’t that be an incentive to impose more tariffs to get more government income? A tax by any other name?
Yes the government gets it and yes tariffs are customs taxes. But these tariffs are used passed onto consumers and the consumers object–like they object to other taxes.
My point is that opposition to tariffs rarely mentions that the government will benefit financially, and proponents don’t either. The pros and cons talk only about the effect on the market, producers and sometimes, consumers. As if the money collected goes nowhere and the government has no vested interest.
Assuming that the behaviour of the producers and consumers of the goods covered by the tariffs does not change, then the cost of the tariffs is born by the consumers, and the tariffs go to the government.
However, in real life things are not that simple. Assuming that the U.S. places a tariff on steel made in China, but not on steel made in Canada or domestically, then any or all of these things may happen:
Steel producers in China may lower their prices, thus reducing their profits.
Steel producers in Canada and the U.S. may increase their prices, thus increasing their profits.
Steel consumers might buy less steel from China and more from Canada and the U.S., thus sending less money to China and more money to the other countries.
China might sell more steel to other countries that aren’t imposing a tariff, thus reducing the amount of steel sold to those countries by Canada and the U.S.
Consumers of steel might substitute other materials for steel because of the increased price of steel.
Final consumers of products including steel might buy less of those products. For example, if steel is a significant component in the construction of houses, and houses cost more because of the tariff on steel, then fewer houses will be built and sold.
In other words, components of the international and domestic economies are connected, and changing the costs/prices in one will have effects on many other components.
I think the revenue generated from tariffs is so insignificant (in terms of our current federal budget and debt / deficits) that it’s hardly worth mentioning.
I think it’s worth mentioning in that it is a tax on the goods we purchase.
I know that comparing just about anything to the national debt makes numbers look small, but it makes more sense to compare this $29B to what we pay in taxes, doesn’t it?
Errrr, you don’t get the tariff money if foreign companies stop buying your products because they are too expensive. Some other country gets their money.
Indeed not, but it would be an amusing twist in the story, no?
Besides, the question has earlier been answered - tariffs amount to a tax imposed by government, increasing the cost of imported goods and the higher prices are passed on to the consumer. Theoretically, the importers then go out of business because now-cheaper domestic goods are preferred and the tariff issue becomes moot.
In the UK customs duties were part of the customary revenue of the state i.e. the monarch. Some authorities consider that customs duty was the only consistently levied form of taxation up until the Civil War. Duty did not need parliamentary consent compared to domestic taxes like excise duty, land, poll and property taxes etc. Hence these form of taxes because particularly liked by the monarch when Parliament and the Monarchy were butting heads. Charles I funded his reign using various import duties for eleven years (1629 to 1640) avoiding the necessity to call Parliament. Also as imported goods usually flowed through a central point customs duties were comparatively easy to collect and difficult to avoid at the harbour.