It is apparent that there are some pretty intense US Constitution mavens out there. (After they got through with me and my Small Claims Court misstatements on another thread, you could barely identify me from my dental records. But that’s okay, I deserved it.)
Here’s my Q for you guys an’ gals: A while back, as Geo. W. Bush was sealing up the Republican presidential nod, there was some speculation as to who he might pick for a running mate. Some newscaster remarked that there was a decent potential Veep (I forget who, but it’s irrelevant) in Texas, but the Constitution forbade him/her from running on the same ticket as Bush, another Texan.
“Wha…?” I said, reaching for an old US History textbook.
Sure enough, there in Ammendment XII it states:
“The electors shall meet in their respective States, and vote by ballot for President and Vice President, one of whom, at least, shall not be an inhabitant of the same State with themselves;…” (The ammendment goes on to explain how the Prez & Veep get chosen.)
Before the ammendent was adopted, the original text of the Constitution (Article II, Sect. 1, par. 3) said essentially the same thing – that is, that the Prez & Veep can’t be from same state, so the ammendment did not create the concept.
Is this requirement just a reflection of the now-quaint intra-state jealousies of our founding fathers, or is there some deeper purpose that a layman like myself can’t detect?
AN APPEAL BEFORE YOU POST: Please resist the temptation to hijack this into a debate about the merits of the Electoral College, or a Who-Will-Bush/Dole-Pick? discussion. Thank you. Thank you. Thank you.