A simple question I feel might have too simple an answer. Take for example Cartesian Skepticism…why not Descartesian Skepticism?
I believe (but someone will be along shortly to humiliatingly prove me wrong, no doubt) that it is because the name Descartes means, in French, “of Cartes.” So when forming the adjectival form of the name, one leaves off the preposition “des.”
Apparently, it’s from the Latin form for Déscartes’ name. This is from www.m-w.com.
What has happened, according to m-w is that Descartes (which means ‘of/from Cartes’) is translated into Latin as Cartesianus which means Cartesian (the adjective form of someone or something related to Cartes). So, rather than “Rene from Cartes” we have in Latin “Rene the Cartesian.”
Alternatively, one could presumably translate his name from the French into Latin as Carti (‘of Cartes’). If that had happened, then we would have been talking about the Cartic coordinate system.
Peace.
How about the Renesian coordinate system?
I don’t think you have to bother with translating Decartes’ name to and from Latin. He used the pen name Cartesius, which I assume is the origin of the adjective cartesian.
Just don’t go putting Descartes before the horse…
Is not all this talk of Latin translations is beyond the point?
A far simpler explanation is the fact that traditional European usage gives less emphasis to the prefix in a name like Des Cartes, or Van Beethoven, or Von Bismarck. In attempting to form an adjective of the name, we’d say Beethovenian, or Bismarckian, and not Vanbeethovenian or Vonbismarckian. So to me it seems entirely natural to say “Cartesian”.
So, René Descartes walks into a bar and the bartender asks him if he wants a beer. Descartes, being a good Frenchman and feeling that beer is suitable only for the English, the Belgians and les Boches, says, “I think not,” and disappears in a puff of logic.