Why couldn't Mr. Rochester divorce his wife so he could marry Jane Eyre?

Insanity wasn’t grounds for divorce in England until 1937. This was a subplot on Downton Abbey.

Granted the marriage had been negotiated & agreed to through intermediaries prior to Victoria actually proposing to Albert. And she still made the promise to obey in her wedding vows even after the Archbishop of Canterbury told her she could omit it.

Uh, I thought he killed those people because he was insane, and wanted to cover it up?

looks it up on Wikipedia Yup, he killed the priest as a dress rehearsal and his friend who knew about his insanity. He probably couldn’t get at the wife, since she was in an asylum (especially since the entire point was to disassociate himself from her), and the friend could blow it up anyway, if he ever heard of the death. So really, killing the friend was smarter; he had more access, and with him dead, no one would ever know about the wife.

There are two versions of Three Act Tragedy: the British one and the American one.

In the British version Sir Charles kills his best friend the doctor because he (the doctor) is the only one who knows about Sir Charles’ existing wife in the loony bin and who could derail his plans to attempt a bigamous marriage with Egg.

In the American version Sir Charles kills the doctor because he (the doctor) knows that Sir Charles is insane.

And as for the Jane Eyre divorce question: surely the reason that confinement in an insane asylum, or similarly imprisonment, can’t be used as grounds for divorce is that in neither case is the ‘desertion’ by the spouse voluntary?

Indeed. Until 1937, the only possible grounds for divorce was adultery. For men, that is. For women, adultery was not enough–additional charges of sodomy, incest, etc. were necessary.

Insanity? Nope.

Baroness Angela Burdett Couts, a middle-aged spinster and the richest woman in 19th century England, proposed to the Duke of Wellington. Though he was fond of her and he needed money, he was offended by her effrontery and declined.

Huh, I’m really surprised I never came across this fact before. Is there anywhere that tells the story behind this change?

Have you read John Curran’s two excellent volumes analysing Agatha Christie’s notebooks, in which she developed her ideas and plots? They are:

  • Agatha Christie’s Secret Notebooks: Fifty Years of Mysteries in the Making, Harper Collins, London 2009; and
  • Agatha Christie’s Murder in the Making: Stories and Secrets from her Archive, Harper Collins, London 2011.

The second volume attempts to unravel the development of the two separate plots for Three Act Tragedy. Curran notes that this transatlantic difference occurs in several of Christie’s works:

He then goes on to outline the two different denouements that I mentioned previously: the UK ‘mad wife’ one and the US ‘mad Sir Charles’ one. He also notes the various textual changes which needed to be made to foreshadow the different endings.

As for the reason behind the changed plot, he has no definitive answer: