Why did Jesus refuse to perform miracles on demand?*

I tried to exclude miracles in my question but I’ll try again: Are there any known non-biased primary witnesses to any aspect of the life of Jesus Christ?

There are no primary witnesses of any kind for any aspect of the life of Jesus Christ.

Even if things were that simple, Diogenes’ statement would be correct. My little sister is extremely reliable, but if I relate a story she has told me, about incidents she witness and I did not, my account is not eyewitness testimony.

Probably not, on oral traditions, more likely. But nobody really knows.

No, but the apologists here are correct in saying that nothing can be inferred from that. Jesus spent all but a few days of his life in the Roman equivalent of Podunk, so it’s not surprising we have no first-hand accounts of him.

However, it’s VERY unlikely that things like the Star of Bethlehem, the Slaughter of the Innocents, and the dead Jewish saints walking around Jerusalem would leave no traces in secular history.

And it’s simply impossible to believe that there would be no secular record of a worldwide census that required everyone to journey to wherever their ancestors had lived in 1000 BC.

Yes, you are correct - I didn’t really mean theme. I was thinking along the lines of Dundes and Campbell. Markers of an archetype? Sort of like the hero’s journey, that sort of thing.

Okay, I can go with you here, if I have a correct understanding of what you are saying: The important thing about Jesus is the forgiveness of sins and salvation. The history of Jesus is meant to testify to Jesus’ divine status. So yes, there are important differences.

That said, I cannot follow you with regard to what you take to the Christian perspective. It seems to be what Justin Martyr argued - that the difference (primary) between pagan religions and Christianity is that Christianity is true, while the others are forgeries.

I will grant both you and he that you all have your reasons for believing that Christianity is morally superior to the Pagan religions (whether I agree or not is different).

All of that said, where I cannot follow is to deny the importance of the similarities. It seems to me that while the ‘message’ or ‘theme’ (or whatever you’d like to call it) of Christianity was different from the Pagan beliefs at the time, the actual stories were similar. It also seems to me that other religions preached similar things - such as brotherly love (I believe there was a Rabbi prior to Jesus who distilled the Old Testament down to two commandments). I also feel that it’s important that we can’t really tell what the original Christianity was - was it what the Gnostics said it was? Was it what survived? I suspect you would say it was what survived. I’m not sure that we can be that solid on this subject. I’d be interested if you had any knock down arguments in favor of your position though.

Broadly enough, sure. However, I don’t believe that’s what I’m doing here.

That is all very interesting - but I’d say the difference between this and what I’m thinking is the mythical elements. None of these elements are miraculous. No one would contest that any of this stuff could happen. Whereas miracle claims are not common.

I think the difference between Obama and Jesus similarities revolving around miracle stories is important.

I do not think that Pagan sources were copy-catted. I think there was influence. I think there is a difference between these two stances. So, for instance, the notion that God became man (or a demi-god or whatever) is a pagan idea, not a Jewish one. This was one of the arguments that the Jews had against the ancient Christians. There were several other ones. The point is that it seems that Pagan religions influenced Christianity - not that Christianity took pagan religion and made it their own. Clearly most of the New Testament is derived from interpretations of the Old Testament. The notion that we are sinners and we can do something to purify ourselves comes from the old testament. They had sacrificial animals and such to cleanse themselves. So the notion that Jesus was the salvation or necessary sacrifice was not an entirely new concept even within Judaism.

The question is, why did the Jewish religion morph the way it did? I think it did because of Pagan influence, which is what the ancient Jews believed as well.

Typhro (supposedly) says:

Justin disputes this point, by pointing to scripture - he doesn’t dispute it by denying the similarity.

I think Tryphro is right, that the ‘virgin’ bit is a mistranslation and the influence of the culture the first century Jews found themselves in crept into their beliefs about Jesus.

A coincidence that Jesus performs magic that was the same as what the ancient egyptians practiced?

From a philosophical point of view, it makes no sense for Jesus to have had to ‘spit’ at all.

Yes, that’s possible - but if we start making such concessions, then why are we certain that other religious ‘miracles’ and god men did not exist?

Fair enough with regard to the copy cat hypothesis. I’m not really supporting that though.

I’d also like to point out some more of Justin Martyr’s discussion with Tyrphro:

Again, his contention is that devils imitated Christianity (or rather, Hebrew texts and such).

More such stuff:

The ancient Christians did see the similarities - they didn’t deny them. They believed that they were the work of devils. Justin’s point was that you could look through the Old Testament and find “Jesus”, which is what the Devils did and they imitated Jesus in the form of the Pagan religions.

Another example:

Justin goes on (and on and on) about how prophecy, texts, and all that should be interpreted and how the Jews got it wrong (basically). It kind of reads how a modern person who believes in Nostradamus would interpret the quatrains.

He saw shit that wasn’t there.

The Damascus Road incident, yes? I’m not aware that feces were mentioned as being in Saul-soon-to-be-Paul’s vision.

Besides, I’m not sure I’d call one incident proof of psychosis. Any others come to mind?

Paul actually didn’t say anything about that (those stories are from Acts), Paul just says a dead guy appeared to him and talked to him. That is a psychotic episode by definition.

Any psychotic episode is a psychotic episode. One psychotic episode is ipso facto psychotic. How is psychosis not proof of psychosis?