Another pointerless WW2 Q… This one could be a GD post, I guess…
But anyways I got to thinking while watching some WW2 films… The Germans continued to produce equipment superior to the allies’ right up to the end of the war. In particular I’m thinking about tanks (Panther and Tiger) and a guns (the “88” anti-tank/flak gun). Why did the allies never reverse engineer these based on captured models ? As far as I’m aware neither of the allies fielded tanks or guns that comparable to these, and in many cases continued to use far inferior types (did any of the allies even get close to feilding a gun as effective as the 88 ? Let alone a tank to carry it).
I realize some people think the development of these advanced tanks actually contributed to the German defeat (as the could not be readily mass produced, so there were never made in sufficent numbers to make a difference). But surely that would not have applied to the allies. Later in the war the US or Soviets could have allocated a tiny fraction of the their manfucturing base to reverse engineered Panthers or 88s produced enough to make a difference at the front, without effecting their production of more easily produced weapons (after all the germans only ever fielded tiny numbers of Tiger tanks but there were enough to make a serious impact on western and eastern fronts).
I understand the Germans were not above reverse engineering in some cases (the Bazooka was reverse engineered into the Panzerschreck).
So was the allied reluctance to do so purely political or was there some other reason.