Regardless of whether Lance Armstrong is or is not guilty of doping, I’m confused as to how the United States Anti Doping Agency can claim to authority to strip someone of a title won in a race held in France. Especially since the sources I’ve read indicate that the International Cycling Union is taking Lance’s side. I mean, regardless of whether he is gulty or innocent, I don’t see how the French Cycling Federation or the International Cycling Union doesn’t get final say in this. Can someone please explain to me what I am missing?
There was a brief mention of it in an interview on NPR this morning, I think something about how the USADA is a signatory to the World Anti-Doping Code and associated with the World Anti-Doping Agency and the UNESCO International Convention against Doping in Sport, so its decisions are honored by the Tour de France. I might be getting the specifics wrong, but it was something like that.
Bah…I look at it the same way I see wins stripped from schools in team sports. People that saw the contests will remember what happened on the field. Nobody cares about what some ruling body decided years later.
Of course, those runners up are all TOTALLY clean, not like Armstrong.
Let’s see:
1999: Alex Zulle, Switzerland: admitted to doping
2000: Jan Ullrich, Germany: post-retirement symbolic ban for doping
2001: Jan Ullrich, Germany: see above
2002: Joseba Beloki, Spain: cleanest of the bunch, only linked to a doping scandal
2003: Jan Ullrich, Germany: see above
2004: Andreas Kloden, Germany: paid a fine to halt a doping investiation
2005: Ivan Basso, Italy: two-year ban for doping
Almost seems like a trend. So the guy who beat all of those guys was clean?
No, Armstrong was doping, just like all his competitors. I watch the Tour for the lovely shots of the countryside.
A good article here, summarising why USADA is likely to make this stick:
My understanding, which may not be completely accurate but I think is fairly close, is that it works like this. The USADA is a signatory to the WADA anti-doping code. So is the UCI. As such, the UCI are obligated to honor the USADA decisions that are backed by the WADA, which the WADA has done in this case.
So he’ll receive a lifetime ban from Olympic sports. But the TdF isn’t an Olympic event. Or is it? I’m confused now.
Seriously, just read the link above. It’s short, clear and outlines the ifs and buts.
And in case clicking on a link is too much work:
Thank you for your snotty and unhelpful contribution. Is the Tour de France an Olympic event or not? The question is not for you. Please don’t answer it.
If you have a problem with my responses above, advise a mod. I am puzzled as to how much more elaboration you require. The Tour De France is one of the tours run by the Union Cycliste Internationale (UCI). As linked and quoted above, the UCI has adopted WADA’s code. As such, and as quoted above:
“If USADA rules there is a doping offence, imposes a lifetime ban and says he should be stripped of his wins then this applies worldwide. It is then for the UCI, as cycling’s governing body, to await the decision and issue the formal notice stripping Armstrong of his wins which it must do to comply with the WADA Code.”
You have protested this is too unhelpful or snotty for you. If you could elaborate which bits are unhelpful/snotty, I’ll try to simplify.
Honest question: Why then is the UCI saying the USADA doesn’t have the authority? 'Cause they are.
No of course it isn’t, but what’s the relevance?
I don’t know. But an Austin court just issued a decision disagreeing with the UCI, so I’m not sure it matters much.
They aren’t saying that anymore, but they originally said that because they’ve long been complicit in doping. They helped cover up at least one and probably other positive tests for Armstrong. One made it to the news, the cortisone positive in the 1999 Tour de France. I consider that one fact rather than allegation since it was widely reported at the time. Another allegation was a positive in the 2001 Tour of Switzerland where the UCI intervened. It doesn’t help that Armstrong donated hundreds of thousands of dollars to the UCI, which is also fact rather than allegation.
This is one of the many reasons anti-doping testing was moved to more independent bodies in WADA and the national agencies. You can’t trust the organization that runs a sport to apply the rules equally, particularly if it will end up costing the governing body (UCI in this case) money because of bad press.
You know as well as I do that the mods will not stop someone from bring rude and condescending. If you want to call out someone for that type of behavior, you have to do it yourself.
It’s quite obvious what of your response was rude and condescending. It was when you treated him like he was too stupid to click the link. It’s obvious to anyone who can read that it says absolutely nothing about whether Tour de France is an Olympic sport, and thus doesn’t answer his question.
The Tour de France occurs every year. It’s obviously not an Olympic sport. Mystery solved.
levdrakon, BigT, stop being tools.
Gary, keep on truckin’.
–Cliffy
Excuse me? BigT is exactly right. If you want to be a pedantic snot, at least read the question before linking to an irrelevant article. Otherwise you sound even stupider.