Former British colonies were populated by Britons, who passed on their accents through the generations, even after their colonies became independent, full-fledged states. So in Australia, New Zealand and Singapore, people speak with a pseudo-British accent. But why didn’t this happen in the USA or Canada? Where did their own distinctive “non-accent” accent come from?
First of all, of course Americans have accents, several.But I guess your question is why aren’t they more similar to British?
first of all, most folks tend to relate “other people’s” accents as compared to themselves, so tho to you the Brits and Aussies seem to sound the same, to each of them, they sound distinctly different. and , while we’re on the topic, the Brits themselves, even in merry old England have several distinct (cockney for example).
but as opposed to Australia, for example, the US was populated by a great deal of European immigrants (including those from the British Isles), not just the brits. Australia, I believe was predominately a Colony for quite a bit longer than the US. this also does not include the factors by the indigenous folks of any of those realms.
In New England area I would say that a vestige of the British acccent remains to this day. Interestingly ( at least to me) there was a discussion on talk radio recently about why Mel Gibson didn’t attempt a British accent for the movie The Patriot, and a linguistics professor noted that even in the mid-18th century, Britons remarked on the ‘queer’ accents of their cousins across the pond.
This isn’t the whole answer, but the main reason is that Australia was settled 200 years later than the US. While later immigrants modify the accent, its basic pattern is set by the first group to live there. So the speech patterns in the US were set by the English of the 1600s and those in Australia by that of the 1800s.
Add to this the fact that during the 18th and 19th centuries, there arose in England a new prestige dialect known as Received Pronunciation (RP), based in part on the accent of the German immigrant monarchs. RP was a significant if indirect influence on the English brought to Australia but had little influence on American dialects.
There’s other factors influencing specific dialects, such as which part of England the majority of immigrants to a specific colony were from, but those are more of fine detail.
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- Because we’re normal. - MC
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You haven’t been to New York.
There are some areas of the country with no accents, interesting, but phone telemarketers, etc are usually in those states for this reason.
If you’re talking about “broadcast English” you’re talking about a midwest accent that was embraced by early broadcasters because they believed it was the easiest to understand.
Come to Bawlmore, hon.
You know, “buoy”–you know, that thing that floats in the ocean (don’t even get me started on the pronunciation of ocean). That’s how you say the younget form of “man” in Bawlmorese (that’s Baltimore, in case you’re wondering). I kid you not, and those are only the less obnoxious bits of it.
It’s one thing that I’m glad I never picked up from B-more.
Ah sayh , suh!
Phulease dew not sughest that The South has an accect.
It’s ya’ll that talk funny.
LOL at Myrr!
Come on, hon, we ain’t that bad!
Settle down, have a drink of wooter. 
Actually, the “Baltimore” accent has been described as a cross between English Cockney and American Southern. Listen carefully next time they interview someone from Essex or Dundalk (or even worse…east Bawlmer) on the news. You can pick up little hints of Eliza Doolittle.
Us N’Inglindahs don’t tawk funny. 'ts awl of t’othas ahn’t right. Now excuse me while I go look foah my soder and cawn on the cob.
People around here just don’t know where to place "r"s in their words…
I am from Arkansas and my Wife is from New York.
There are times when we stare blankly at each other trying to figure out what we said. BTW It doesn’t help to say it more loudly.
Okay, so…
Is it a fact that the accent Americans currently use is based on the accent that the British had in the 1600’s? In that case, why didn’t the rest of English evolve to sound like ours as well? I’m not understanding…
Also, I believe most Americans can tell the difference between Australian and British accents. The original post centered around the fact that there doesn’t seem to be a non-accented version of English anywhere in either country. What gives?
Someone once told me that New Englanders gave up all their Rs for the word wicked
And for those of you who think that Midwest speech is un-accented, I invite them for a week’s stay on the pull-out sofa in my one-bedroom apartment. I will show you the unaccented American English that exists in places like Pierz and Buckman. Dey talk funny up dere, you bet dey do.
Myrr21 wrote:
You and I must pronounce the word “buoy” very differently, if it sounds anything at all like “boy”.
I say “boo-eee”.
I think it mostly amounts to this:
Normal = what you’re used to.
Accent = the funny way those other people speak.
My speech patterns were formed in Michigan and Ohio, but my family moved to Pennsylvania when I was 10, and I’ve been there (with occasional gaps of a few years) ever since. I don’t hear any difference after more than 25 years, but I’ve been told by others that Ihave an accent–I still sound more Midwest than the locals. (And Midwesterners would no doubt hear traces of West Pennsy Hick.)
No no no; “buoy” is how you pronounce “boy”. Of course, having lived in Baltimore a good bit of my life and having an New England mother, I have weird amalgom of accents. I’ve picked up some Bawlmorese, but still drop the "h"s at the beginning of words and stuff.
Because we weren’t talking to each other. There were thousands of miles of ocean between us so the two went their own ways. They had different influences (e.g. immigrants from various countries in the US, RP in England).
The same thing happened in the other colonial languages. Spanish in the various Central and South American countries is significantly different than Spanish in Spain, even more so than the differences between English English and American English because they had a hundred years’ headstart. Quebec French and Brazilian Portuguese are also different than their European counterparts. This is the way language evolves.
Actually, the same thing happened within England during the Middle Ages. People didn’t move around much so different localities formed their own dialects. In some areas, one could travel a handful of miles and reach a place where the dialect was barely understandable. We didn’t get to that stage in the US because we’ve always been more mobile.
They do. They have an American accent. To me, Austrailians etc don’t sound at all english.
This is true. I understand Latin American Spanish better than I do Castillian. Even in spain, accents can be fairly different depending on the region. I know in Sevilla, it seems like s’s in certain positions seem to become aspirated (had the hardest time trying to understand a speaker from Sevilla on a tape we were listening to in class one day), while in Castilla, they arent. Latin American Spanish also doesnt pronounce c’s and z’s like they do in spain (in Spain, those two letters tend to be pronounced like “th” sounds).
And for me, my American accent is your basic Californian. I dont hear it of course, so i think everyone else has accents, but not me ;).
Question: For those of you who arent from California, how would you describe the typical accent you find in the coastal cities?