A common complaint of chronic pain patients is constipation caused by the opiates they are on. If I understand things correctly, you could give oral naloxone to these patients which would solve the constipation by out-competing the pain medication for the opiate receptors in the gut, while at the same time it would not go to the brain in significant amounts if taken orally if I understand things correctly - and so the opiates would still do their job of being a pain killer.
Since that is such an obvious thing to do it obviously isn’t done for a reason. What is that reason?
Indeed I googled this before posting this question and I found this intriguing statement:
which suggests that it *is *done in Holland, in which case the question becomes “why is this not standard”?