Anti-black bigotry isn’t as bad as it was say 100 or 200 years ago. Having said that, there is a rich history (this is for the United States) of various other forms of bigotry. Anti-semitism, anti-asian bigotry, anti-irish, anti-italian, etc.
For the most part, these groups have integrated now. Irish, jews and Italians seem fairly integrated despite them having serious problems 100 years ago. I don’t know a ton about anti-asian bigotry, but it doesn’t seem like a major issue in modern America. People don’t look at a white-asian marriage the way they likely do a white-black one.
But anti-black bigotry is alive and well. It has improved in some areas (the end of official segregation, higher support for interracial marriage, etc) but this form of bigotry seems to withstand the test of time.
Hell, anti-gay bigotry has changed quite a bit in just the last 20 years. There has been a lot of improvement in that area. In the new Pew political typology report, it found that Core conservatives (the base of the republican party) for the most part don’t care about homosexuality anymore. Its a non issue for them, that wasn’t the case as recent as 2004 when anti-gay prejudice was used to help motivate them to get to the polls.
So why does society seem to make such improvements in bigotry against jews, irish, italians, asians, gays, etc. but anti-black bigotry doesn’t improve nearly as much?
Is it because the crime rate is higher among blacks? People use that as a reason to hate them? Nobody is worried about asian crime or irish crime. However the current administration is trying to make Latino crime and immigrant crime a bigger issue by portraying latino immigrants as rapists and MS-13 members.
But the issue is that there are at least 4 factors in people who commit a decent amount of street crimes (probably more). Young, males, poor, black. Not all criminals are like that, but a large disproportionate number fit that compared to the % of the general public who fit those 4 categories (probably only 1% of the country fit all 4).
But the other 3 items really aren’t used for bigotry purposes. Nobody says ‘men are terrible’ or ‘young people are terrible’, or really even ‘poor people are terrible’ like we do with black people. When a young, black, poor man commits a heinous crime people don’t say ‘all men are dangerous’ or ‘all young people are dangerous’ or ‘all poor people are dangerous’ per se. It seems like the crime thing is more a justification than a reason, but I don’t know.
Point is, not all criminals are young, poor black men. But a large % are compared to the % of the public they make up. However if you take any 1 of those factors away, crime rates drop dramatically (young poor black women don’t commit many crimes. Old, poor black men dont’ commit many crimes. Young middle class black men don’t commit many crimes, etc). But society seems willing to forgive the male, poor and young aspects more than the black aspect of it.
On the other end, one of the major reasons to persecute jews was because they were too successful. They do better than other groups. So if you don’t succeed enough (like some people accuse blacks or latinos) people criticize you, but if you achieve too much (like jews) they criticize you. Even with blacks, Obama was criticized for accomplishing too much (even if people didn’t say that was why, him being an overly successful black man seems to have rubbed a lot of people the wrong way) just as blacks in the ghetto are criticized for accomplishing too little.
Anti-muslim prejudice seems to be growing. I assume because of fears some don’t share western values, and fear of terrorism.
So do people have to be personally affected by bigotry to share a prejudice? But groups like asians or gays aren’t out making people’s lives worse so people don’t care. But fear of black street crime and paying for black welfare, or fear of Sharia law or Islamic terrorism is a threat to people existentially? So prejudice requires people to actually be negatively affected personally? Or does it require identity aspects you strongly identify with?
So long story short, why does this particular form of prejudice survive longer and more sustained than other forms? Many other forms of prejudice have improved compared to this one.
Also, is Europe really considered a vacation from racial tension? I’ve heard some black people say going to the UK was like taking a vacation from racism. Is that true? Is that all of western Europe or just the UK? I"ve heard the UK is more divided by class, not race.