Opus1:
Sure…by pointing everyone to your “Skeptics Annotated Bible” page, which cherry-picks “cruelty” stuff.
You see no evidence of this interpretation? Perhaps, then, the original sources should be examined. Here’s G-d’s statements immediately following that original attack by Amalek, Exodus 17:14, 16 - "Then the LORD said to Moses, “Write this on a scroll as something to be remembered and make sure that Joshua hears it, because I will completely blot out the memory of Amalek from under heaven…He said, “For hands were lifted up to the throne of the LORD. The LORD will be at war against the Amalekites from generation to generation.”” Clearly, based on this attack, which had been considered a direct assault attempt by the Amalekites against G-d, G-d decided to seal the fate of the Amalekite nation. Sounds to me like it was this attack which put them into the same category to which such societies as Sodom & Gomorrah and the Canaanite nations belonged.
He had higher priorities at that time than carrying this sentence out, but clearly, this was not forgotten, because forty years later, Moses tells the Jews that G-d had commanded (Deuteronomy 25:17-19) - “Remember what the Amalekites did to you along the way when you came out of Egypt. When you were weary and worn out, they met you on your journey and cut off all who were lagging behind; they had no fear of God. When the LORD your God gives you rest from all the enemies around you in the land he is giving you to possess as an inheritance, you shall blot out the memory of Amalek from under heaven. Do not forget!” So in Moses’s transmission of this, he makes a point of saying that through this attack, the Amalekite nation showed that they possessed no fear of G-d (which meshes well with quote # 1), and therefore the society had to be completely erased from historical memory.
Cut to Samuel 400 years later. He directly references these commandments from the Torah, which themselves indicate that the post-Exodus attack pushed the Amalekite nation past the threshhold. It doesn’t take the Talmud (which I’ve been trying to avoid using in my arguments here) to come up with the interpretation I offered here. It merely takes a reading of the Bible in full context.
The problem with your analogies is that God is omnipotent; man is not.
But G-d is also omniscient. While I’m not going to claim I know how G-d’s calculations look, perhaps we can take one of these analogies and offer an approximation. Ah, here’s one…
If the U.S. were omnipotent during WWII, I think that we would have found better ways to win the war than killing millions of innocent people.
Now, let’s say the U. S. military planners were not only omnipotent, but also omniscient. So they’re actually able to have in mind all the possible ramifications of using the atomic bomb vs. not using it. They’re capable of not only calculating how many lives will be lost during the scope of the continuing World War II if they stay conventional vs. go atomic, but also how many lives will be lost if the effects of the bomb on human beings are never seen (perhaps the world powers will be more cavalier about using them), how many lives will be lost if the Soviet Union didn’t see that Americans are willing to use it against their enemies, how many lives could be lost if the Japanese, having never experienced the horror, decide after their defeat to start their own atomic bomb program…I could probably think of more “what ifs” if I had all day to spend. Then, after tallying all these factors with the absolute certainty in numbers of an omniscient entity, the solution that will lead to the least overall loss of life, worldwide, for centuries to come, is the atomic-bombing of an entire city. Would you still say that choosing that course of action in order to win the war is evil?
- God kills David’s son.
Again, let’s remember that God isn’t supposed to punish people for others’ sins. And again, God does not follow his own rule. In dealing with David, God punishes both his wives and his son for his affair with Bathsheba.
“This is what the LORD says: 'Out of your own household I am going to bring calamity upon you. Before your very eyes I will take your wives and give them to one who is close to you, and he will lie with your wives in broad daylight.” (2 Sam. 12:11)
Clearly, this is meant as a punishment for David. But it is David’s wives who are given to other men.
Next, God says to David:
“You are not going to die. But because by doing this you have made the enemies of the LORD show utter contempt, the son born to you will die.” (2 Sam. 12:13-14)
We might let God off the hook here by saying that this was merely a prophecy: he was just telling David that his son would die, not actually killing him. But in the next verse, we learn that “the LORD struck the child that Uriah’s wife had borne to David, and he became ill.” (2 Sam. 12:15) (The child dies seven days later.)
I believe that God’s action of striking David’s child dead is immoral and contradictory to his own laws.
Well, it’s not “contradictory to his own laws” (you were referring, then, to Deuteronomy 24:16) if the child’s death is a consequence of his parents’ action rather than a punishment for it.
In addition, the issue of the wives is not necessarily cruel to them…there is no indication that it was involuntary on their part. When it actually happens (2 Samuel 16:22), Absalom was on top of the world, and David was a fugitive. So yes, it’s a punishment for David that this would happen, but it’s not necessarily cruel to them.
So that leaves the issue not of how G-d could violate his own rules by killing the baby (that was answered earlier), but why G-d couldn’t find a way to handle the issue without killing the baby. I use the phrase “handle the issue” rather than “punish David” because a thorough reading of the chapter bears out that tthe killing of the baby was not part of David’s punishment! A quick recap of how the conversation goes:
Verses 1 - 4 - Nathan tells David a parable re: his treatment of Uriah
Verses 5 - 6 - David condemns the man in the parable
Verses 7 - 12 - Nathan applies that condemnation to David and pronounces the punishment, mentioning only the matter of the wives.
Verse 13, first half - David immediately confesses guilt.
Verse 13, second half - Nathan indicates that David’s confession was accepted as repentance and he will therefore not be further punished with execution.
Verse 14 - After David’s repentance was accepted, Nathan pronounces that the son born to David and Bathsheba will die.
So why does G-d feel the baby has to die? The reason is given in verse 14: “But because by doing this you have made the enemies of the LORD show utter contempt, the son born to you will die.”
In other words, the presence of this baby will give rise to contempt of G-d. This is, in essence, the same issue as with the baby Amalekites and Canaanites - the presence of this living symbol is an impediment to people’s spiritual well-being. For the protection of others (in the spiritual sense), it was eliminated, not as punishment for David’s sins.
Some probably have no problem with the idea that a woman who tries to stop her husband by fighting by grabbing his genitals should have her hand cut off and be shown no pity.
Just a point - according to Jewish tradition, this and all other punishments that maim (e.g. “an eye for an eye”) are actually monetary payments that correspond to the punishment described. I realize that this is in the Talmud rather than explicitly written in the text of the OT, but I just thought I’d mention it.
As a result of this false information, Pharaoh takes Sarai to be his wife. God is displeased and inflicts “serious diseases on Pharaoh and his household because of Abram’s wife Sarai” (Gen. 10:17).
Not as punishment for taking Sarai - they did so in good faith, as you said - but as protection for Sarai so she wouldn’t be forced to sleep with anyone but her husband. As you can see, the Egyptians got the message rather effectively.
And BTW, another translation issue…while the Hebrew word used here can mean “diseases” or “plagues,” it also means “blemishes,” i.e., a major skin rash. (It’s the same Hebrew word as used in Leviticus 13-14) In other words, in the Jewish understanding of this OT story, they didn’t get struck with major illnesses, just with rashes…which would discourage sex and thus protect Sarah.
Num. 5:11-31 relates the test a man can make his wife take if he suspects her of infidelity. Basically, it is a trial by ordeal, as is evident in verses 27:28. But we know that trial by ordeal does not work. Whether a woman’s belly swells and her thighs rot away (or she has a miscarriage; the text is unclear) is not dependent upon her guilt or innocence. It is unfair for God to enact a law which does not work.
First of all, according to a number of stories quoted in the Talmud, it did work. Obviously, this was a miraculous sort of thing, and not a mundane one; it was a valid test only in the Jewish Holy Temple when it stood. So your whole premise goes out the window there.
However, even if we were to say that it didn’t work, it served quite a noble purpose. Look at the ingredients in this “trial by ordeal”: water, dust, and some ink washed off a piece of paper. Hardly poisonous stuff; if the test truly didn’t work, then everyone taking it would be found innocent, not guilty. Nonetheless, if the participants believed in it, it would restore the bonds of trust between the husband and wife, helping repair a relationship damaged by suspicion. Not very nefarious, is that?
But that’s beside the point, as it’s my understanding that, when properly religiously administered, it did work.
Chaim Mattis Keller