I don’t think they recognise such a distinction in Germany either, actually.
Notwithstanding what fire hazard says, the question that has been canvassed before the German courts is whether Scientology is a “religion or worldview” (either would be enough to secure it constitutional protection, so as long as it’s one of those two things it doesn’t matter which one) or whether it predominantly pursues commercial aims as a profit-making enterprise. The Federal Court of Justice, which is the highest court in the system, has never given a ruling on the matter. Lower courts and tribunals have given diverse rulings.
It doesn’t have to. It only has to apply to the United States in order to provide a basis for challenging the propriety of an action of the United States.
It’s not suggested that the Constitution prohibits the US government from securing the borders of the US; merely that it requires the US government to do so in a manner not forbidden by the Constitution - i.e. that it cannot secure its borders by making a law “respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof”. The question would be whether a legal ban on immigration by Muslims would be a law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof.
Precisely. Being a Yazidi doesnt’ get you in. You have to a Yazidi fleeing a country in which it is established that Yazidis have a well-founded fear of persecution. It’s the well-founded fear that gets you in, not the religion.
No, restricting immigration by religion would not be a prohibited exercise of power, nor would it be unconstitutional. Can you provide a cite where this has ever been established?
As Iggy points out in post #8, immigration is the purview of congress. Here is an articletalking about some of the issues.
I came here looking for such cites, or other legal justification.
Congress may make rules ‘unacceptable’ to citizens, but not rules that violate the Constitutional rights of the people.
I still don’t get your argument. Immigration may be the purview of Congress, but that doesn’t mean Congress can order actions that violate the Constitution in defence of the border. For example, if the U.S. government decided it needed to quarter soldiers in the homes of people along the border in order to secure it, that just might run into problems at the Supreme Court.
Similarly, I suspect that if Obama formally announced that no Christian refugees would be allowed into the country (not that he would, but hypothetically), I suspect the Christian Right would be arguing that such an action is in violation of the First Amendment, as the U.S. government is now using religion as a selector for new citizens, and that’s exactly the kind of thing the establishment clause was written to protect from, isn’t it?
It’s not about the rights of an immigrant. It’s about the nature of the U.S. government and the separation between church and state.
In order for something to be declared unconstitutional someone has to sue. In order to have standing that person has to have suffered a harm. The only persons to suffer actual harm would be the would be muslim refugee. These people are not in the US and so the constitution does not protect their rights.
It might be possible for a relative to sue on the basis that they were denied family reunification based on their religion.
This is what occurred to me as well. Some Muslim who was already here, had gained citizenship, and wanted to bring in some relatives who would be admitted if they were British or something, but who were denied because they were Muslim.
The argument would be that the Muslim citizens were being denied the equal protection of the law. And it would be a pretty strong argument, ISTM. Whether or not that meant Congress could exclude Muslims who didn’t have family or sponsors in the US I couldn’t say.
My son, who’s English, lived in the US for 5 years. He had a green card, a good job, an American wife and everything seemed fine. Then one day he was called in to the immigration bureau. Because he came in originally on a tourist visa and even though he’d been given his green card they decided he should have exited the country and then applied for a work visa. So because of this he was stripped of all his possessions, locked up, denied access to a lawyer and summarily deported.
If the Constitution applies to non-Americans why was he denied any rights at all? That’s why I found the idea of the Constitution protecting non-citizens bizarre. He was told that as an illegal immigrant he had no rights at all.
But the matter here isn’t actually a matter of rights, but a matter of the powers of Congress. If the First Amendment had been phrased as “The People shall have the right to free exercise of religion”, then one might make a case that “The People” means citizens, and that noncitizens thus don’t have that right.
But it’s not phrased that way. Instead, it’s “Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof…”. The Constitution certainly applies to Congress, and so Congress is limited in that way, no matter what citizenship any individuals might hold.
Chronos, you’ve been here long enough to know that your personal reading of constitutional provisions is not law, even if it happens to be the most sensible one.
Iggy basically got it. Where the Constitution specifically devolves certain powers to the other branches (such as the authority of the POTUS to make war) they will either defer heavily to their position or refuse to review decisions in that area.
In the specific case of immigration, SCOTUS has basically given Congress and the POTUS carte blanche to ignore the 14th Amendment where an “overriding national interest” is at issue. It’s considered to derive from the politicial branches’ supremacy over foreign affairs.
Basically, it’s the POTUS’ job to make treaties and Congress’ job to implement them, so according to SCOTUS it’s nobody else’s business how foreign nationals are treated (for the most part).
This is where I see there might be an opening. Can Congress get dinged on the Rule if it’s not uniform?
One suspects that if Congress makes a Rule that excludes Muslims from Syria, but not from, say, Jordan (or England), it could be attacked as not being uniform.
Or am I appealing to too broad a definition of “uniform” here?
“Uniform” in Clause 4 means uniform across the states, not uniform as to immigrants. In other words, it’s just saying Congress has exclusive power to establish the law of naturalization, rather than allowing states to set their own immigration policy.
Well, yeah, the Constitution says Congress shall make no law…, so how do we get from there to “no prayer in school”. Are you suddenly a strict textualist???