1/2 blind. Player A folds. Player B declares “All in.” with 10 chips. Player C calls with 5 chips. After a split pot, how many chips does Player C have?
Is it just the three players, A, B, and C, playing?
If so:
Blinds total: 3 chips
Player A folds
Player B adds 10
Player C adds 5
Total: 18 chips.
If Player C wins the hand, gets everything except the amount of Player B’s bet that was not covered by Player C’s bet.
So, Player B gets 5 chips back, because player C only covered 5 of the 10; Player C rakes a total of 13 chips (Player C’s original 5 chips, plus 3 from the blinds, plus 5 from Player B).
I assume, although it does not matter, that player B was sb, and player C was BB.
After C calls the all in, B gets back the 5 excess chips. This means that there are 13 chips in the pot. If the hand is split it goes 6.50 each to B and C.
Oops, sorry. Didn’t notice the bit about the split pot. I was assuming that Player C won the hand outright.
Obviously, in the case of a split pot, it is, as TommyTutone says, 6.5 chips for each of Player B and Player C.
Now, if you can’t have half a chip, someone is obviously going to have to get 7, and the other person 6. But i’m not sure how that would be worked out.
Well, if it is Texas hold 'em, it’s worked out with six shooters, at high noon, in the street in front of the casino.
Tris
When a split pot results in an odd lowest-denomination chip, the earliest player left of the button (that is, the player who had to act earliest on post-flop betting rounds) gets the odd chip.
This is what I thought as well. We got into a pretty heated discussion, with myself being the least experienced and in the minority.
What they said was along the lines of your first post, that when the chip leader goes all in, he is basically calling everyone at the table all in. For instance, if we change the setup to B has 100 chips and C has 1, and B and C have identical hands, does C get 50.5 + 1/2 the blinds?
What is the usual procedure/protocol for an all in before the river?
Does the dealer then just turn over the flop, turn and river immediately? Or is there any opportunity for those who matched the all-in and still have chips to keep betting against each other?
Thinking if C has very few chips left, A and B have many chips.
A blnd. B double blind. C all-in with 3 chips.
A sees the 3 chips,
Can B raise against A’s 3 chip bet?
Would there be any betting after the flop (obviously only between A & B)
Yes, A and B can continue to bet against each other, and these chips are set into a side pot. Player C can’t be pushed out for not having enough to call, but he does not get these extra chips if he wins the hand. Whoever wins between A & B wins the side pot, and whoever wins between A,B,C gets the main pot. The amount in the main pot is 3 times the total amount bet by player C.
No. The chip leader is putting everyone else all in, but he is not putting himself all in, even if he puts all his chips in the center. He is only ever liable for the number of chips that another player can cover.
You can never take more from a person than you have bet yourself. So, if B puts 100 in the pot, and C puts 1, then the most that C can take from the pot is 2 chips—the one chip that C put in, plus one chip from B. Player B then gets his other 99 chips back. And that’s if C actually wins the pot.
If the pot is split, then the first thing that happens is that Player B takes back 99 chips. Now, there are two chips left in the pot, and B and C split them equally.