*tl;dr: Read the **bolded *text for summary.
Ok, I think I might get it now.
So, all these “Polls Are Skewed!” folks (e.g. here) predicting a Romney win are pointing to the polls’ internals, specifically that the pollsters’ likely-voter models keep producing samples with an larger-than-usual percentage of (D)-identified voters than (R)-identified ones (despite there seemingly being more Republican enthusiasm in '12 than in '08), AND they show Romney tied or losing almost everywhere despite also giving him a big edge in “independent” voters (as opposed to previous years, when independents were even or broke toward the winner). The poll-skeptics (even the more thoughtful ones) say that these internals make no sense in the context of a top-line of Obama +1 or +2, so there’s really good reason to think that everyone’s likely voter models and weightings actually are producing a bias in Obama’s favor.
In response, the best (and for that matter only) counter-argument I’ve seen (or made) is an argument from authority: when, as people who basically know nothing about how to conduct and weight scientific polls, we’re evaluating the relative strengths of these competing claims, it just seems super-unlikely that almost ALL of the people who do this professionally and have solid track records are wrong, while the only people who HAVE figured out the truth are partisan Republicans with no particular expertise in polling.
I actually find this argument to be quite convincing, but it’s not very satisfying, right? It DOES seem a little weird that (R)-identified voters are coming in kinda light, and it seems a lot weirder that Obama could be ahead overall despite losing decisively among independents; Democrats are really gonna crush the Republicans in base turnout? That’s what we’re expecting?
Anyway, I’ve got a hypothesis that would explain this. Of course, I’m basically trading in the same kind of amateur analysis as the Republican poll-debunkers, but at least in my case I’m butting heads with dilettantes like myself instead of, you know, every decent professional polling firm.
It’s pretty simple. If it’s correct that this is in fact the scenario that the polls are describing, then the safest assumption is that BOTH parts – the supposed Romney lead among independents AND the supposed Obama lead overall – are real. How? A modest percentage of those who, in past elections, have or would have considered themselves Republicans are, in 2012, self-identifying as “Independents.” Or, to be even more succinct: it’s the Tea Party.
Finding up-to-date Tea Party demographic/self-report numbers is surprisingly difficult, but back in 2010, per Gallup, 43% of Tea Party supporters considered themselves Independents (and 8% called themselves Democrats), even though in my opinion it’s safe to assume that the Tea Party-Independents mostly represented traditionally conservative/Republican voters. There’s no doubt that that 51% combined Dem/Ind number has come to down to earth somewhat in the past two years as the Tea Party movement has shrunk and settled into it’s role as a de facto subset of the Republican electorate, but I still get the impression – and I may well be completely off base here – that a large minority of Tea Party folks prefer to self-identify as Independents instead of Republicans, even though they’d sooner shit a hubcap than vote for Obama. Basically, in this particular election, the self-identified “Independent” group is siphoning off numbers from the self-identified “Republican” group in way – or to a degree – that has not been true in past.
The problem with this theory is, of course, a lack of evidence. It’s just a loose hypothesis which depends on my assumption that a meaningful percentage of Tea Party supporters prefer the “Independent” label to the “Republican” one despite being reliably conservative in their voting. And of course I haven’t crunched any numbers to see if the math would shake out.
On the other hand, the hypothesis kills two weird-looking birds with one stone, and I think the whole thing is at least plausible. Anyway, it struck me as kind of a neat idea that I haven’t seen anyone else hint at. Given the lack of evidence I really have no confidence that I’m right. However, in the (unlikely?) event that, when this is all over, the exit polls looks substantially like the surveys that some Republicans are questioning – with Obama losing independents badly but winning the popular vote – I think this idea will stand a decent chance of having explained a part of that result.
Thoughts?