I hear this one thrown around a great deal: “I oppose abortion, but of course I support it in cases of rape, incest, or danger to the life of the mother.” I think it was Scylla who first invoked this position in the Bush/Abortion thread.
This seems like an easy thing to say, but if the laws were changed to reflect that statement, what would it mean in practice?
- Would only women who clearly proved rape or incest in a court of law would have access to abortions?
So if the trial takes too long (no late-term abortions, remember?) or the prosecution messes up or one juror decides she can’t convict, no abortion? Woman has to have the child? Who supports it? Does she sue her rapist for paternity and child support? Maybe the court could perform a Christian wedding ceremony, so baby can grow up legitimate?
I mean, golly gee, otherwise, just anyone could go to her local abortion clinic and say “I was raped, honest!” and order herself up a brand new abortion! You’d have no way of knowing if they were actually raped or just vile sex-having Jezebels taking advantage of the system!
- In cases of “danger to the life of the mother”, who decides? Does the decision reside with the doctor? Does it get presented before a judge - do we set up “abortion courts” who hear the cases? Who is responsible if the tribunal chooses wrong, and the woman dies?
Couldn’t I just pay off my doctor? Or would we have special impartial state doctors examine me?
I’m mystified by the Republican Party, who claim that they want smaller and less intrusive government. If the above anti-abortion vision becomes a legal reality, could government BE any more intrusive?
Let me know what you think.