Although a bit inarticulate,[sup]*[/sup] the OP may be asking a slightly nuanced question. It seems as if he (?) is asking something a bit more than “is talking out against the war an immoral act?”
Consider:
The OP is setting a condition to the hypothetical, that one’s “free debate” has crossed a line. This is different from asking did the Senator’s comment cross the line. That’s fodder for another debate. Wouldn’t arguing about the given premises of a hypothetical be a disservice to a debate? That is, debating the premises, while perhaps eliciting worthwhile comments on that subject, inhibits the addressing of the original question.
Given that the OP states that speech has “crossed a line,” that is that a Senator (as opposed to the Senator) has crafted outright fabrications in order to deride a political opponent, it seems that the question of ‘what then’ moves to the fore.
Unfortunately for clarity, it remains difficult to tease out just what the OP is asking. This is because there seems to be other areas in question. The OP also (appears) to state that most of the motivation for making such line-crossing statements is ‘good’ (i.e. one really believes those statements), but a small portion of the motivation is ‘bad’ in that it stems from a desire to hurt your political enemies.
Those who have read Kant within the past ten years will forgive me if I get this wrong, but isn’t this aspect of the OP asking something similar to the question of whether or not moral credit should be given to an act that is done in accordance with duty, rather than from duty? Clearly there is a difference between the standards for moral credit and moral approbation, but there are parallels.
Lastly, by making reference to government officers, the waters may be a bit muddier, in that the question of whether or not the statements and acts of politicians should be held to a higher standard than ordinary people.
So:
- Should there be ramifications for a politician who uses outright lies to support a cause?
There are two avenues of action. One, that candidate should not be returned to office. Thats how it should work in theory. But that assumes a fully informed electorate, and one that has reasonable choices. Pragmatically speaking, if the choice is either the lying politician who generally supports your beliefs or one that hold’s beliefs that are antithetical to your views, it turns into a different moral question, one that focuses on the voter.
I daresay the second is impeachment. If, as the OP states, the statements and actions were wholly founded on intentional, knowing lies, than I suggest that such actions would be an impeachable offense. Putting aside the specifics of the rules of various houses and other bodies of government, and assuming that the fabrications could be provable and demonstrably false (a high burden, but such standards are again fodder for another debate) then in my opinion, an electoral body would within their rights to remove that person from said body.
- How does the motivation for making such statements play into the question?
Given that the OP states that the statements ‘crossed a line’ into lies, etc, I don’t think this question can be addressed without either taking it as a completely separate question (i.e. isolating it from the rest of the hypothetical) or accepting a means justifies the ends outlook. If not, then the motivation behind such statements strikes me as irrelevant, because a wrong act (i.e. lying) is a wrong act regardless of the motivation.
That said, I suggest that the motivation is irrelevant nonetheless. First, only in the extreme world of the theoretical is it possible to apply any type of numerical or spatial breakdown to such motives. Even if there is no honest belief in the position that a politician takes (for example, Senator Kennedy is a closet Republican) he still has a duty to represent the beliefs and outlook of his constituents. If in doing so he is fulfilling the desires and wishes of the electorate, who put him in office and will ostensibly reelect him based on his actions, than he is fulfilling the obligations of his office. This, of course, is debatable depending on one’s views of the proper roles of politicians.
Second, it somewhat draws on the pragmatic impossibility to identify an act that stems solely from duty. I don’t think it’s possible, given the basic situation as described in the OP, to hold a political opinion that sharply differs from one’s opponent, to honestly promote that agenda, without simultaneously harming (in the political sense) one’s opponent. Given the nature of politics and the inherent desire to promote other agendas (in my opinion) it is not a moral wrong to harbor and relish such motivations in the course of advancing an agenda.
- Should politicians be held to a different standard than non-officeholders?
I don’t think so. Though their statements and actions have a greater affect than posters on a message board, and impeachment is not an option in the normal course of life, the populace still has the power to ignore or discount statements they find out are misleading.
Right and left wing talk show hosts, street corner speakers, and the guy at the bar all have their core audiences who listen regardless of the statements, but I daresay that the majority of citizens listen and react to future statements by them by allowing more or less credence to such opinions. Politician’s speech is subject to much more scrutiny and fact checking, but should not be subject to a higher degree of control.
I hope this made sense, and I hope What the … !!! will forgive me if I took the OP in unwarranted directions.
Rhythm
[sup]Not that I could do better, so please don’t take this as a snarkish quip[/sup]