Just so I get this straight - when someone asked J.K. Rowling in her interview “Did Dumbledore, who believed in the prevailing power of love, ever fall in love himself?”, what answer could J.K. Rowling have given, in your view, knowing that she (Rowling) herself had his past firmly embedded in her mind when she wrote the books?
a) Supposing he wasn’t gay: “Yes, he was married when young but his wife died and he remarried.” or “He had a girlfriend but he never married” or “He was in love with Bathilda Bagshot but she never requited his affection” or something like that:
This would be objectionable because kids who read the books would not know that Dumbledore was heterosexual?
or
b) I had an answer in my head but it would be unfair to say it out loud, only if it’s written down in a book would the answer count and not be a travesty of the unwritten contract between author and reader
or
c) I could tell you, but the rules of New Criticism require me to be silent
or
d) Won’t someone think of the children who never read this interview!
or
e) Fuck off, it’s none of your business
OK, my post is partly tongue-in-cheek, but what would the right answer be to make you happy?
I’m not accusing you of being a homophobe, but I disagree on pretty much everything you are saying in this thread:
a) Rowling is wacky for having more backstory in her head than she put in the books
b) Dumbledore being gay is a major fact that would cause someone reading the books to interpret many important scenes differently
c) Children not knowing that Dumbledore is gay will be missing an important part of the story
The only thing I partly agree with is that, from a civil rights or activist point of view, it would be nice if she explicitly said Dumbledore was gay just as an object lesson to kids that gay people are OK. But I’m not going to go so far as to say that she was a coward for not doing so. I’m willing to believe that she had other, more literary, reasons.