Are Psychiatrists playing us? Book claims studies show psych meds much less effective than claimed

Hentors point is that anecdotal data being supplied doesnt match up with scholarly data. Rather than being overprescribed, CDC data indicates only 50% of people qualifying for ADHD are actually being treated. This does not mean there might be individual areas where a doctor is overprescribing, but it does mean ‘overprescription as an industry’ isnt supported by that particular example unless other data is supplied.

The books case is interesting but makes some awfully large claims. I hope there are some rebuttals out to it soon so one can weigh the arguments.

We recently had a huge increase in access to low cost psychological counselling in Australia via Medicare, and the outcomes so far seem to be very poor in regards to outcomes regarding improvements in depression or anxiety ratings. There are a variety of reasons for this, but its an example of why I wouldnt put too much hope in that as the magic bullet alternative to pharmacotherapy.

Otara

If studies of drug and non-drug treatment methodologies for moderate mental issues show that non-drug methodologies have a better overall outcomes for individuals over time, the notion that pharmacotherapy should still, somehow, be the preferred default therapy, and non-drug therapy is the “alternative” therapy that has to prove itself is kind of strange. It’s amazing how powerfully ingrained the medicating model for mental illness is in modern American culture. People barely question it. It’s part of the cultural bedrock at this point.

Again, please provide me with a cite that I can review.

Perhaps I disagree with the position taken by wild-eyed and deceptive “medical journalists” who misrepresent the evidence, and those who want to mindlessly repeat false claims. I don’t think doing so makes me care-free about concerns regarding what we don’t know. Perhaps being familiar with the evidence that we do have about the actual risks and side-effects of stimulant medications, and at the same time being very aware of the severity and breadth of impairing effects of ADHD (diminished academic performance and unnecessary frustrations, social impairments due to noxious interpersonal behaviors, risks for substance use, increased risks for accidents…), makes me concerned that false impressions about pharmacotherapy needlessly results in a portion of kids being prevented from receiving the best therapy. If that seems too cavalier to you, perhaps that’s too bad. I’ve just come to have my fill of bullshit.

Being in that position, I’m quite pleased to be able to provide parents with information based in reality for them to make their decisions. If I had an attitude that I should reject the empirical evidence in favor of ill-formed internet fear mongering, that would actually be worrisome.

You keep saying this. Please provide any evidence that I can review regarding this claim.

Please be aware that I am in agreement with the evidence regarding antidepressants.

I’m sure a large percentage of those children diagnosed with ADHD not taking medication have indeed taken meds in the past but have chosen to discontinue them due to intolerable side effects.

I’ve had a lot of kids tell me that the meds they take do in fact help them focus better in school, but never have had one tell me they like it otherwise or even want to take the medication. Most dislike the “off” feeling it gives them and look for opportunities to discontinue taking the drug.

Per the links in the article disussing the claims of the book regarding theraputic outcomes over time, here are some studies referenced by the book and the article.

Factors involved in outcome and recovery in schizophrenia patients not on antipsychotic medications: a 15-year multifollow-up study.

Antidepressant Drug Effects and Depression Severity

I think it is indicative of something that there seems to be a very strong either/or philosophy about psychotropics. I had both types of therapy, and benefited specifically from the synergy of being able to invest in the not drug portions of my therapy precisely because the medications dramatically reduced the symptoms that had left me alone on the side of the road having tactile delusions of cutting myself to pieces.

Using drugs to interrupt destructive behaviors is certainly reasonable. Believing that the absence of the symptoms constitutes relief of the underlying emotional disorder is just plain stupid.

Tris

Thanks for the links, astro. I think that the Harrow and Jobe paper is being misrepresented - I think it’s being described as a study of the outcomes of unmedicated schizophrenic patients. However, all of the people in that study were treated with pharmacotherapy at enrollment, and many of those at the 15 year time point who were not taking medications had taken them at some point between intake and the 15 year assessment point. What the study does find is that at the 15 year follow up, a higher proportion of those patients who were not prescribed medication at that point in time were in a period of recovery than those who were at that point prescribed medications.

It’s not a very impressive study, but if you want to draw interpretations from it, they would be that schizophrenia is episodic and that the severity and course varies across individuals. But think about it. If you follow up 15 years later with any group of patients for any problem whatsoever, which group would you expect to be in the midst of a period of better functioning - those being prescribed medications or those not being prescribed medications? A related question - why are people prescribed medications? Hopefully, and in actuality, people are more likely to be prescribed medications because they are experiencing impairing symptoms. If there’s a group not being prescribed medications at a given time, of course you should expect that more of them would be functioning better at that time than a group that is.

Now, if there are people who think that permanent and enduring pharmacotherapy for schizophrenia is mandatory, this study would provide some corrective feedback.

However, if you think that this study proves that more people with schizophrenia would do better if they were never prescribed medications, it does not come close to saying that. Furthermore, if we were going to draw that conclusion, I would need to see a study with more than 64 participants with schizophrenia, would need to see a comparison to a group that actually never received medications, and would need to see an analysis that examined their relative functioning over time, rather than at one point in time. Show me how symptoms change over time for randomly assigned groups who differ on medication status.

This is very much like the description I give to parents about ADHD medications - it only makes sense that if you are having severe problems focusing, concentrating, remembering and so on and so forth, that you are going to have a bit harder time making good use of the other therapy you are getting. This is also very consistent with the evidence from the MTA study, a very large well designed study which convincingly showed that kids with ADHD got the most rapid benefit from a combination of pharmacotherapy and behavioral therapy.
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With respect to schizophernia (and I assume some other mental diseases) this is really the chicken and the egg as you note below.

The US medical and psychological establishment is very quick to medicate even low level mental issues compared to some other advanced western nations. The outcomes over time don’t seem to indicate this drug centric treatment paradigm is all that much more effective over time for patients with moderate symptoms.

The notion that some patients moderate levels of schizophrenia can get better, or possibly reduce to the level that the symptoms are personally manageable without medication as you age is kind of interesting, and something I have never heard much about. My US based layman’s view of schizophrenia is that it’s a chronic, lifelong disease that may ebb and flow but always needs medical, drug based intervention on some level.

It would be illuminating to hear what some of the medical doctors on this board have to say about this topic.

I work in an inpatient psych ward. The majority of our patients are depressed, or bipolar, or schizophrenics. Some come back again and again; some we never see again.

The reasons why this drug or that treatment works or does not work are many and varied. Oh the stories …

Doctors - what say you??

Its not unknown for people to improve over time with psychiatric conditions, in itself this isn’t a controversial concept. In Australia at least, Ive seen many people drop in medication over time, and it for it to be a common part of treatment. Part of what complicates this is more caution about diagnoses that are older - a 60 year old person who was diagnosed with schizophrenia or bipolar at 20 might receive a very different diagnosis now for instance.

Generally the people most strongly encouraged to stay on medication for the longer term are the people who have had repeated and serious relapses in the past, generally including dangerous or being at risk of dangerous behaviour. And of course there are stuff-ups, with people being over and under medicated, misdiagnosed, etc, ‘good’ hospitals’ and ‘bad’ hospitals, like with medicine in general.

Its not unknown for people to deteriorate as well as improve as they age, the tricky bit is predicting who is going to do what. The book claims to have the answer and quotes its favourite institutions. I hope they do have improved methods but would want more evaluations and data about those places from other sources before making a decision.

With this book, single studies in particular directions are being quoted for a particular diagnosis without any other studies being mentioned that might suggest alternatives or complications, which is one reason to be dubious as its pretty rare for areas like this to have single ‘unarguable’ results. Perhaps it does do that more balanced work in the book, because we’re only getting the ‘best’ quotes in the reviews being linked.

One example would be that I looked up the developed vs non developed country schizophrenia study and it said 8% of developed country people were dead at 13 year follow-up vs 11% for less developed, which hopefully also puts into context how serious this condition can be and the risks that non-treatment can involve.

What does this large increase in mortality mean? Is the price for better outcomes more people dying sooner for instance? Or are the outcomes being complicated by the worst cases simply being less likely to survive? The study also found that people in less developed countries did better even when both groups were treated, which suggests its probably not simply a case of worse treatment regimes in the West, but something a bit more complicated.

The study doesn’t argue to know why the outcomes were better and acknowledged that its an area of great debate, rather than making the ‘obvious’ conclusion ‘people are being over-treated in the West’ that the book makes.

Issues like these are known to the people researching these areas, and why people get irritated when books publish these ‘hidden’ studies and these ‘clear findings’ suggesting semi conspiracy arguments rather than outlying the complications that go into evaluating research data and treatment recommendations.

None of this is particularly new really, the debate about ‘overdiagnosis’ and ‘over-treatment’ has been raging since Szasz, and ongoing changes occur as some arguments are supported, and sometimes reversed again as well when new findings come up as the new ‘improved’ regimes are put to the test.

So its a question of what the overall evidence base supports for future research, as opposed to the conclusion of one book which has a clear drum to beat and a great selling angle. I really do hope it does have a few new strong cases to make, and it improves the state of the art, but I wont be holding my breath.

Otara