I, the perpetual fence sitter, bound to reason the best he can, am about to conclude by the device of Ockham’s Razor, (not quite the “simplest is best” explanation many make it), and also in view that: the scholars pro or con are useless in this subject, because each makes an unwarranted presumption that prophecy either exists or does not exist in order to prove the same, and after any fallacious reasoning of the scholars is ignored, their further claims tend to be equally valid.
But Ockham’s razor is not evidence, it is a principle of reasoning.
Wikipedia’s article, not in dispute, is much greatly improved than a couple years ago for Ockham’s Razor. Anyone who has not seen it should pay a visit. I have argued myself hoarse (figuratively) in other forums suggesting some of the same ideas regarding application of Ockham’s razor.
But before Ockham’s razor is applied, I have a couple issues yet unresolved:
Since Ockham’s razor may fully lead the reasoning person to a conclusion that Isaiah 45 was written after the fact, any and all evidentiary arguments, which are always superior to Ockham’s razor if they exist, must be disposed of.
I see two un-disposed-of evidentiary arguments. I’ve mentioned one before.
If Isaiah 45 and associated “second Isaiah” text is redacted after the fact, why are not all necessary “corrections” made to make the prophecies fit the facts afterwards?
For instance, it has been mentioned previously that Isaiah 47 also prophecies that Cyrus would “destroy” Babylon, but he didn’t, at least by the most common meaning of english “destroy.”
Why didn’t the redacters correct this as well?
Second evidentiary avenue unexplained:
For this I suggest all interested persons visit http://www.blueletterbible.org/ or searchable bible of your choice. Search for the phrase “Holy One of Israel.”
You will find that “Holy One of Israel” is a phrase mostly used in Isaiah. It seems to be his trademark, so to speak. I believe it appears dozens of times in Isaiah, maybe once in Ezekiel, twice in Jeremiah, and thrice in Psalms.
As a known tendency, the prophets spoke what had been said before, meaning Psalms, Jeremiah, and Ezekiel’s highly disproportionate seldom occurring instances may be seen as tribute to Isaiah–worth repeating, but hey, since I’m not Isaiah I’m not gonna go very far with it… Therefore these instances can be explained.
Yet there is another, in 2 kings 19:22 (and the few preceding verses, for context) where Isaiah in person says the words “Holy One of Israel.”
This means that the authorship of 2 Kings must also be called into question. If the author of Kings is solid, this means that the second portion of Isaiah, referred to as 2nd Isaiah, bears Isaiah’s ‘trademark,’ and being in the nature of an evidentiary proof, supports the argument that Isaiah is all of one authorship. “Holy One of Israel” occurs about as frequently in “1 Isaiah” as in “2 Isaiah.”
If either of these proofs do not pan, out, this fence-sitter thinks its about time to conclude, by Ockham’s razor, that there is about a 99% likelihood that relevant Isaiah was written after the fact. The fence sitter reserves 1% due to the idea that Ockham’s razor is not a substitution for any available evidence but a very good reasoning device in the absence of evidence, and figures that best with a not-quite-entirely rebutted presumption that book of Isaiah’s identity is what it says it is.
But not quite yet. Dopers, what say you to the fence sitter’s final two issues unresolved?