A more specific attempt to get to one of my questions from my now closed thread (RIP).
Obviously, nobody is wrong all of the time. But if, for example, Hitler had an interesting opinion about chiaroscuro, you sure as hell aren’t going to bring it up, or people will reasonably wonder if you’re a Nazi or otherwise white supremacist.
Same with Trump. If he does something random that you just happen to agree with, and you’re left of him politically, you generally won’t say so, ONE reason being that it might be read by those who don’t know your beliefs as an indication that you support Trump generally. There are lots of other people you can cite agreement with anyway, so this seems like a reasonable conclusion to make.
But suppose, just to take a hypothetical example, a B or C list musician expresses a strong political opinion, for which he is plainly retaliated against. This opinion is fairly mainstream and doesn’t inherently hurt anybody. The effects are so widespread that they hit the news, and lots of people hear about it. Those who are passionate about the political opinion sing his praises online, encouraging others to listen to his voice and reward him by buying his music.
Problem is, that musician expressed prejudices against an ethnic group before (and worse, that group is involved in his political opinion). Members of that group are upset by the above and, on the same principles as Hitler and Trump above, declare that those taking the actions in the previous paragraph are themselves prejudiced against that ethnic group, or at least don’t care about what happens to them.
This is one question that’s haunted me: Is that declaration reasonable as a generalization (as opposed to being directed at an individual)? Does it make a difference if they never heard of the prejudice incident (which was publicized at the time)? Does it matter what people do when confronted with this information? Obviously there’s a line somewhere, but this whole thing has made me wonder where it is.
Any non tangential thoughts?