If a batter swings and hits the catcher, the batter gets first baseball correct? This raises a further question. Watching Sports Center, they showed a highlight of a player attempting to steal home. As soon as he broke for home the catcher stood up and moved over the plate. Could the batter swing and hit the catcher and get first base or does the attempted steal prevent this from happening? If the batter hit the catcher with a swing of the bat to prevent the catcher from making a play, would this swing be legal? What would the ump do if the batter swung? IT is my understanding that players may attempt to steal home at the same time a player tries to hit the ball or at least bunt.
“If the catcher (or any fielder) interferes with the batter, the batter is awarded first base. If, on such interference a runner is trying to score by a steal or squeeze from third base, the ball is dead and the runner on third scores and batter is awarded first base.”
As for the batter deliberately swinging in this situation, the fact that the catcher was not in the catcher’s box would take precedence. The batter is just trying to hit the ball.
Interference on the batter is called quite frequently but that usually happens when a batter goes out of the box after a swing and prevents the catcher from making a play on a stolen base attempt.
Do not ask Boston Red Sox fans about batter interference on bunt plays.