Foul ball, play is dead. Rule 2.00, “Foul Ball,” specifically states that a ball that directly touches an umpire or player in foul territory is foul. Such a ball cannot become fair by any subsequent action.
Why is a pitcher not considered to be an infielder? Surely any ball that reaches a base has gone past the pitcher. And the pitcher can make defensive plays. For that matter, it is possible, although obviously highly unlikely, for an outfielder to be between home and a base. What then? Is the rule specific to infielders, or just fielders? Thanks in advance.
The pitcher can be considered an infielder for purpose of this rule, but remember, it’s more than just a matter of the ball having “gone past” an infielder in a geometric sense. The ball has to go “through, or by” or be “deflected by” an infielder before runners are absolved of their responsibility to avoid batted balls.
Two examples:
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Runner running between second and third, hit by a ball in front of the shortstop. Do we absolve the runner of his responsibility to avoid the ball, because it had “gone past” the pitcher, in the sense that the pitcher was only 60 feet from the plate and the runner was 120 feet from the plate when struck? No, we do not. The pitcher had no chance to make a play on the ball, the SS did, and the runner is out.
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Nubber hit down the third base line, pitcher is the only fielder with a chance to make the play. He tries to make a bare-hand pick-up and misses, after which the ball strikes a runner coming down the line from third to home, in fair territory. Do we absolve the runner in this case? Yes, because the pitcher, an “infielder” for purpose of this rule, had a chance to make a play on the ball and missed. Runner safe.