The runner does not have to have the intention to interfere. If the ball hits the runner and did not pass an infielder (that is, go reasonably close to an infielder) there is the presumption of interference.
This rule doesn’t address the batter-runner, but presumably he is entitled to first. I would have to hunt that one down.
6.08 The batter becomes a runner and is entitled to first base without liability to be put out (provided he advances to and touches first base) when—
(d) A fair ball touches an umpire or a runner on fair territory before touching a fielder.
If a fair ball touches an umpire after having passed a fielder other than the pitcher, or having touched a fielder, including the pitcher, the ball is in play.
Hmmm…I didn’t know that the position of the infielders was part of the equation. What happens if a runner is hit by a ball that has passed an infielder? E.g. a third baseman running in to field a bunt.
The rule states “before the ball has touched or passed an infielder…” If the ball has passed an infielder, the rule does not apply. I assume the ball would be in play.
Looks like it’s another one of those weird edge cases in baseball rules. I’m surprised it happens so rarely (the ball hitting a runner after it’s passed an infielder). In “double-play depth” or “corners-in” the corner fielders are inside the base paths. I wonder if there’s another rule that covers a runner getting hit past an infielder?
This is a good trivia question to ask people who think they know them all.
The runner is out, the ball is dead, and the batter gets credited with a hit.
When I was a kid, there was this trivia question, how could there be six and no runs in an inning. The answer is based on the last three hits gotten on the basis of this rule. Of course, you almost never see it. Incidentally, if the ball passes a fielder other than the pitcher, the rule does not apply.
That was the subsequent question. If the ball passes an infielder, the rule does not apply. If the runner intentionally interferes with the ball, other rules come into play, and the runner is out. However, if the ball hits the runner and he does not intentionally interfere with it, once it has passed the infielder, I would think the ball is in play. There’s always the question of whether the runner intentionally interfered, but that is a judgment call by the umpire.
Yesterday, I saw a most unusual judgment call by an umpire. Not that it was wrong, but it is rarely called. The batter was hit by a pitched ball, but the umpire ruled that he did not make a good faith effort to get out of the way. It was only called that way because not only did the batter did not try to get out of the way, but he ducked his shoulder into the pitch. IMHO, that’s a call that umpires should make more frequently. Some batters make a living getting hit by pitched balls.
The most famous invocation of that rule occurred in 1968, when the Dodgers’ Don Drysdale was working on his then-record consecutive scoreless innings streak. Drysdale hit Giants catcher Dick Dietz, but umpire Harry Wendelstedt ruled that Dietz had not tried to get out of the way. Since the bases were loaded, Dietz was denied an RBI, and Drysdale went on to set the mark of 58 straight innings without allowing a run. Orel Hershiser (also a Dodger at the time of his accomplishment) broke the record twenty years later.
This rule seems like it could be exploited by the baserunner. Say that there’s a runner on first, and the batter hits a sure double-play ball toward the second baseman. The runner could intentionally run into the ball, which would mean he’d be out, but the batter would be given first base.
In that case, though, the runner could be called out for interference. I’m not 100% certain on what would apply after that, but there is a possibility the batter-runner could also be deemed out.
At double play depth the fielders would be behind the basepaths, not in front of them.
Fielders are usually behind the basepaths, except in unusual circumstances, like if a bunt is expected or the winning run’s at third with less than two out.
Thanks barbitu8! That’s exactly what I was looking for.
This rule (or a similar one for non double-play situations) was invoked against the Yankees in the 2004 ALCS with Boston. A-Rod slapped the ball away from the pitcher who was attempting to tag him out at first. Derek Jeter was on first base and originally scored on the play but the umpires made him go back to first. If A-Rod had just accepted the tag-out Jeter would have been on second. As a Sox fan this brings up fond memories for me.
