Tell me about “racism” between blacks and Hispanics.
Is there any way to measure it and show that it is more or less than racism involving whites and either of those two group?
If it is actually more prevalent relative to the population of the offending party, is it justifiable in some way?
Of course not. Racism is racism.
Considering that there is a degree of racism within black or Hispanic populations, I think the whole question of “worse” or “better” is moot.
Remember that it was African-Americans who instituted the paper-bag test against their own community, not whites (although it was in response to a majority white society that made paler skin “more attractive”). See colorism.
You’d like to think so.
OTOH, given the mathematics involved, it’s possible for a minority group to both…
#1 Have a greater tendency toward racism than other groups and
#2 Suffer directly from racism by an even greater percentage
Seems like #2 could be used as a rationale to overlook #1 by some who might want to achieve certain political or social ends.
Anything can be used as a rationale by “some who might want to achieve certain political or social ends.” Racism isn’t anything special that way.
You don’t think the “race card” stands out as a popular and effective tactic.
Controlling the understanding of “racism” is a key part of that strategy.