Can a man releaes semen before ejaculation

In My Humble Opinion
1

I’m asking for a friend, Joey Joe Joe jr Shabadoo. So if a normal orgasm is a feeling of pleasure and the release of a large amount of semen, what it is where a person can maintain activity for an extended period of time and seems to leak a lot of fluids but never has an actual orgasm with a large fluid release (I hope the answer isn’t ‘boredom’)? Is there a risk all the leaking fluid could have semen in it?

I know about pre-ejaculate and how that is supposed to not contain semen. But this seems like it is more than pre-ejaculate, that or Joey is leaking a lot of pre-ejaculate. When masturbating Joey has a regular orgasm with fluid released at the end and no pre-ejaculate, when engaging in intercourse he has a lot of fluid and no final orgasm.

Can a man slowly release semen over the course of intercourse instead of having one contained release of semen at the end? There is supposed to be a valve that keeps the semen locked up near the bladder until it is needed, which makes sense from a biological POV (the more semen shot in one load, the higher the chances it will get past all the roadblocks and reach the egg. Leaking small amounts of semen over time wouldn’t have nearly as good a chance I would assume). But could the valve be leaking? If it were, why wouldn’t masturbation cause this same kind of response?

The stereotypical answer is ‘no’ a guy cannot and everything is pre-ejaculate and has no semen in it. But I was under the impression that the physiology isn’t clearly defined.

Assume that the guy is leaking semen over a long duration, wouldn’t those semen have a much lower chance of pregnancy since there is no ejection force to them, and they are occurring in small numbers over a longer period (rather than a large number all at once, which I assume means the woman’s body will not let as many through)? Assume condoms are already in use, wouldn’t this (if this is actually happening) lower the chances of pregnancy further?

2

“A friend.”
Yeah.

3

Well. I’m not a doctor, but I believe it’s a good idea to assume that anything that comes out of one’s penis during sexytime contains semen.

As far as the rest, Joey should really talk to someone who is a doctor.

4

Pre-ejaculate contains semen.

5

Yeah, no kidding. There are studies that show some men’s contains semen and others don’t. Why assume you, uh your friend, is a guy whose doesn’t?

6

Yeah, because no one ever gets pregnant using the withdrawal method for birth control. Of course pre-cum contains sperm.

7

The withdrawal method, when used properly, has a 4-18% failure rate per year. Condoms have a 2-17% failure rate. Using nothing has an 87% failure rate.

FWIW, my goal was to use that and condoms together, but I don’t come so I don’t know if what comes out has sperm anyway.

One study I read recently on pre-ejaculate said there is no sperm, this one that I just found says there is. So I’m going to go with ‘yes’ from now on.

8

You don’t…cum? What better reason than that to go see a doctor and ask?

9

There is no way that condoms theselves have a 17% failure rate. People that use condoms correctly and everytime have closer to 2-3% failure rate.

I don’t think it is fair to lump in everyone who considers themselves condom users when considering how good they are.

10

There is perfect use and typical use. With perfect condom use it is about 2%, with typical use it is about 17%. With coitus interruptus, it is 4% and 18%. As I said earlier, I try to use both methods.

11

What on earth are the ones who fall into the 17% failure “typical use” mode doing with the condoms? It goes on your cock, gents!

12

Typical use includes not using it. While I don’t doubt this is a useful stat from a public health perspective - we aren’t morons here.

Anyone who doesn’t know you need to put it on before you stick your whatever in her hoohaa, that you need to leave it on the whole time, and that you need to leave space at the tip for the semen isn’t using it correctly. And don’t reuse - or use a dry one thats been in your wallet for 2 years.

It is a not a useful statistic when comparing the two methods being compared here - as these are all very avoidable mistakes. It might be a useful metric if you were suggesting that the public in general should try and do it.

13

Which is your preferred ending? Whistle or buzzer?

On a more serious note, it’s perfectly fine to assume that your pre-ejaculate fluid is sperm-free. As long as you don’t mind if your partner gets pregnant.

14

It does seem like this thread is waiting for a setup…

Q: What do you call a guy who …
A: Daddy

15

I concur- absolutely ( unless had a vasectomy ).

16

I read somewhere (don’t have the cite at the moment) that “typical use” is defined as including a certain percentage of people who usually use one but occasionally forget or decide not to. It was in a debunking of some religious group’s (cough cough Catholic) anti-contraception propaganda that “condoms don’t work; look, official stats say they fail 17% of the time!” Sure, they’re gonna fail if you don’t USE one.

ETA aaaand I see I totally missed DataX’s post saying the same thing.

17

Or one that’s been in a hot car.

Or one with a clear package left on a table or windowsill where it will catch light - sunlight or even florescent lights. Both break down condoms.

Or one that’s been in your pocket or wallet for more than a day or so. “2 years”? I don’t think so. Especially if the condom is up against your body heat or your warm cellphone battery. *Any *condom that reaches 100F, even for a short time, should not be used.

Or one that some idiot stockboy at Walgreens left on the delivery dock in the freezing cold or the broiling hot before you bought it. (And how are you going to know?)

Or one that some idiot well meaning person stapled to a pamphlet with information about the local health clinic. (I had to throw out a whole case of donations once. Thanks, guys!)

Or that some overeager person with long fingernails put on and accidentally tore and didn’t notice it.

Or that someone tried to “prepare” before foreplay by opening and setting on the nightstand where it began to dry out.

Or that someone puts on after getting or giving a massage with oils - we “all” know now not to use Vaseline for lube, but how many sensual massages segue into sex without handwashing? A lot.

Or that someone waited to long to take off, or didn’t take off properly. You need to hold the open end and withdraw while still erect…that seems to be the biggest mistake I hear about, and certainly the one I’ve experienced most with my own sexual partners. They linger and enjoy the moment and don’t realize their soldiers are making a break for it.

And for the love of Og, don’t “double bag”. Two condoms are more likely to break that one. Thank you, friction.

No, we’re not morons here. But I defy you to find me a single person whose had a condom failure that thought he was an moron before the failure. It doesn’t take a moron to make a mistake.

Real world failure rates are far more useful and honest than “perfect use” rates which reflect theory, not reality. And yes, that includes people who “didn’t use it just this once” - and that’s true whether you’re looking at typical use failure rates of the Pill or condoms or withdrawal or diaphragms or women who were late for their Depo shot or any other contraception. Is it “fair” to blame a condom if you didn’t use it? No, not entirely, but it’s interesting and valuable to know what methods people are most likely to find inconvenient or embarrassing or too time consuming to actually use.

Condoms are good at reducing the spread of disease. They’re okay at reducing pregnancy, but Wesley Clark is absolutely correct that withdrawal is nearly identically okay at reducing pregnancy, both “perfect use” (theoretically) and in the real world. Won’t do jack for reducing disease, though.

As for the OP’s question: check with your doctor, if you’re really interested. A normal amount of preejaculate doesn’t *generally *contain viable sperm unless you’re on your second or more coitus of the night and it’s picking up sperm from your previous ejaculation on its way out. But it sounds like you’re producing more than is common, so we can’t really assume the common answer applies to you.

18

While I agree it is better to be safe than sorry, the studies on semen in pre-ejaculate are contradictory. Some find it, some don’t. Some find the sperm mobile, some don’t. Of the studies that do, I’m not sure how much was due to a lack of urinating out the semen from the previous ejaculation.

Again, it is always better safe than sorry, but the debate isn’t settled either.

19

Always treat that gun as if it’s loaded.