You might even say they’re surreal claims.
No… no one wants to say that.
Read on. They go on to state “According to our present knowledge, therefore, the diet was optimal for the suppression and cure of active dental caries.” In Table 3 they quantify the “Average number of teeth per child in which caries showed hardening.”
Supplanted? Prove it.
Put up or shut up.
You’re quite welcome.
According to their present knowledge. From 1932.
You seriously think that’s a valid conclusion that applies to dentistry today? Beyond surreal. I did not expect to see such an early join date based on your posts.
Prove what? Plastics, titanium, and sterilization over wood, glass, and alcohol? Endoscopy, laproscopy, dissolvable sutures over exploratory surgery and string? Digital xray and MRI over poking around someone’s mouth and pulling all their teeth out?
Are you off your meds or something?
QFT
Moderator Note
This thread is getting a bit too emotional and snippy (especially the second comment quoted). There’s no problem asking for a cite, but let’s try to keep things a bit more civil and focus on the factual aspects of the topic instead of bickering back and forth.
No warning issued, but let’s all keep in mind that this thread is in GQ, so let’s keep it on track and keep your comments appropriate to this forum, please.
Please don’t mistake my comment as any sort of defense but I believe Surreal is looking for something disproving his “diet can reverse cavities” assertion specifically rather than something saying that dentistry as a whole has moved on since the 30s.
To clarify, decay in the form of a white spot on a tooth can be reversed. However, once an actual cavity has formed, it does not heal and cannot be reversed.
So rsat3acr is correct in post #3, but Surreal in post #4 is incorrect.
Regards,
Shodan
Good post, but here’s another site that supports the claim that cavities can be reversed:
What’s with all the “but that’s from 1932” posts? I don’t know if the info Surreal provided was from a peer-reviewed, journal publish study or something less reliable, but studies, knowledge, facts, etc. do not have an expiration date. Solid science was performed in 1932. Of course if further studies conflict and have less variables, are performed on more subjects, etc., then the weight may shift from one overall conclusion to another, but weight won’t be shifted because any of that material being published later and the “that’s from 1932” posts were posted before any other facts were supplied in this thread.
Of course solid science was produced in the past. What is not possible is that any subject in physiology or medicine could have remained untouched and unexamined since the 1930s. The use of ancient studies that have not been confirmed by more recent findings is a hallmark of all the followers of Weston Price in particular and of other medical quacks in general.
Since we have an actual dentist and an actual doctor who have posted in this thread, I’ll leave any commentary on subject matter to them.
yes sometimes decay can stop progressing into the dentin and you get what is called sclarotic dentin. It does not howerver heal it just stops getting worse. Seen it many times(in absolute numbers) but as a percentage of the decay I see it is a very miniscule amount. The damage to the enamel remains.
Some reminerization occurs in the mouth everyday but on average many more cavities progress then arrest development. We often, when finding an incepient lesion, give it until the next exam to see if it is progressing before restoring. Fluoride in the water and toothpaste has helped with remineralization of early lesions but by no means has it stopped decay.
Your rebuttal does not address my post. Surreal never claimed that the subject has remained untouched and whether they’ve been confirmed by more recent findings is irrelevant as is any findings being “more recent.” My point stands. Everyone that posted about it being from 1932 did so as if there’s any expiration date. There’s not, and no other cites have been posted at that point. “Nuh uh, many facts and studies have been refuted those findings” is acceptable. “Nuh-uh, your cite is from 1932 therefore it is meaningless” is not.
But if the science from 1932 was sound, wouldn’t it still be being reaffirmed in the interim? I mean, if it’s good, that would be the jumping off point and used for the foundation of whatever follows, right? Not a one-off.
^ Of course. But whether it was a one off or whether conflicting scientific findings exist hadn’t been determined.