wring:
You’ve spent an lot of time in this thread saying stuff like “You’re missing the point.” Trust me, I get the point. I just don’t think it matters so much as to override the sovereignty of the United States. Now, on to the substance . . .
This is exactly what the U.S. would do . . . Not at all. Has the U.S. sued Peru in the ICJ over the Berenson trial? Or that delinquent kid in Singapore? Nope. Sure, we sometimes raise diplomatic hell over treatment of our citizens in foreign countries. But have we tried to get the ICJ to trump the judicial proceedings of a sovereign nation? Not that I’m aware of.
Germany wants to make sure its citizen has been treated fairly under U.S. law. Well then, the proper authorities to check with are the bodies that interpret and apply U.S. law: the U.S. courts. If Germany wants an “independent review,” fine by me. I don’t care whether it’s conducted by the ICJ or Amnesty International or Fidel Castro. They can “review” all they want. But the only people with any authority to determine what U.S. law requires in this case are the U.S. courts. Not Germany, not Tanzania, not the Justice of the Peace of Tierra del Fuego, and darn sure not the ICJ.
The US needs to answer to the World Court how it is treating citizens of another country. Nope. That’s what sovereignty is all about. If Germany doesn’t like it, they can “rattle their chains” as loudly as they like, just like we do when one of our citizens is getting screwed over. But they and the ICJ cannot force a legal judgment on the American courts.
If you’re so certain that they weren’t harmed, why in the world would you object to an independant review of the procedure? It’s not about “harm,” it’s about sovereignty. I don’t care if the ICJ would have agreed with us on every count–it still has no authority to require U.S. courts to pay it the slightest bit of attention.
(The yahoo link) should take care of the ‘we never agreed to nuthin’ point. No, actually, it doesn’t. We apparently agreed to arbitrate Vienna Convention disputes between the U.S. and other nations. The LaGrand case is not such a dispute. That was a criminal matter between the state of Arizona and the LaGrand brothers. If Germany wants the ICJ to declare that America should tell foreign national defendants about the right to contact their consulates, that’s all fine and dandy. But where does it say that the ICJ has the power to intervene in a case between a state and a foreign citizen who commits a crime? Citing the ICJ judgment itself only begs the question; on what basis do they assert that power, and has the U.S. ever abrogated its sovereignty by assenting to whatever that basis might be? Please, real cites this time, not just second-hand news accounts.
I keep insisting that in all cases, they must go through the proper adjudication reviews. And in this case, since there were foreign nationals involved, that included the world court. On what legal basis do you conclude that “proper review” includes the ICJ? Although I can certainly imagine a system in which international bodies were granted the power to adjudicate a dispute between a nation and a citizen of another country, I’ve seen nothing that shows the U.S. has assented to such a system. Until that happens, “proper review” starts with a grand jury in Arizona, then moves to a state trial court in Arizona, a jury of twelve people, the Arizona appellate courts, federal district court for the District of Arizona, the Ninth Circuit Court of Appeals, and the U.S. Supreme Court. It would be completely unprecedented to give an international court the power to trump American courts on a matter within U.S. jurisdiction.
Exactly how do you think our state department would react if, say, Libya sentenced one of our citizens to die, admitted they’d screwed the procedure up, but assured us that even without an independant review of the case, that they {Libya} were certain that the screw ups didn’t affect the outcome and buh bye to the guy? Gee, I imagine we’d be pretty pissed. Maybe we should bomb the crap out of Khadaffi’s kids again. But that still wouldn’t give the ICJ any power to compel Libya to do what it says.
Pjen:
‘Why should I accept the ICJ jurisdiction?’ The US did so when signing to the Treaty and arbitration by the ICJ. Not according to anything I’ve seen posted here. liebfels was kind enough to post the VC’s arbitration provisions on the first page, and it looked to me like we agreed to arbitrate VC disputes between nations. The LaGrand brothers were not, last time I looked, a foreign nation.
I am not sure of the quality of defence offered to the Lagrands, but an argument that a better defence, particularly at the penalty phase, would have assisted them is certainly arguable. Sure, it’s arguable. In fact, it was argued. They lost that argument because they couldn’t show any way in which their defense was inadequate.