I suspect I don’t have all the details of this situation. I have a family member who has a checkered driving history and some run-ins with the law, and this is his deal so I’m getting it second and third hand. But here are the facts:
- Driver D is going normal speed, has a green light
- Municipal vehicle of some kind (MV) turns left on green directly across driver’s path
- D swerves, successfully avoids turning MV, is unable to avoid collision with roadside hazards, wrecking D’s car
- MV, knowing they caused the wreck, calls police and (it seems) essentially admits fault & is cited
- D car is totaled
- (some uncertainty about what/whether any communication occurs here)
- Junkyard starts trying to bill D a daily fee, D understands car is totaled, sells vehicle for scrap
The last step is the problem here. What I think has happened is that D, not knowing that the other driver basically offered himself up as being at fault, just assumed he was screwed and didn’t inquire into his options. He is very squirrelly about law enforcement and, like, bureaucracies, so I’m not sure to what extent anybody tried to apprise him of the situation or at what time. But my understanding is he didn’t know the other driver was out there and had been cited, he didn’t have the hundreds of dollars a day to keep the wreck just sitting in the junkyard, and so he sold it, and now his insurance company is saying basically that he’s fucked irrespective of what the market value of the car was, and whether they could have been indemnified if he still had the title.
So that’s my question - is that true? If you’re driving a $15K car, you wreck it in a one person accident for which someone claims responsibility, and you sign over the car to the scrap yard not knowing the other driver has done so, is the difference between the FMV of the car and the scrap value just gone forever? Isn’t your loss still the same, minus the scrap value, and still caused by the other guy?
Thanks for any insight.