Could We have Saved Money by Buying Out Slave Owners Rather than Fighting the Civil War? Cecil says yes, but he’s forgetting two important points: one, the South might not have agreed to buying their slaves–although since slaves were property, the Takings Clause* might have been interpreted to apply, permitting the government to seize the property for “public use” and give fair compensation–and two, more importantly, the Civil War was not fought solely on the issue of slavery. Who can say what might have happened if in, say, 1858, Lincoln had offered a plan to buy slaves instead of giving his House Divided speech. (Yes, I’m aware he wasn’t President at that point.) While slavery was a major factor in the Civil War that did happen, we can’t know if without that tinder there was enough to light the fire of civil war. But it bears considering: the worst outcome would have been buying the slaves and then still fighting the war.
What follows is a long digression about the constitutionality of applying the Takings Clause to slaves.
*from the Fifth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution: “nor shall private property be taken for public use, without just compensation.” From Wikipedia: “The property need not actually be used by the public; rather, it must be used or disposed of in such a manner as to benefit the public welfare or public interest. One exception that restrains the federal government is that the property must be used in exercise of a government’s enumerated powers.” For a forced slave buy to be constitutional, the government might interpret the Commerce Clause to say that the slave trade is an interstate trade (and is inextricably linked with interstate trade) and thus falls under federal jurisdiction. A more interesting Constitutional argument would be that the Full Faith and Credit clause in Article IV (“Full Faith and Credit shall be given in each State to the public Acts, Records, and judicial Proceedings of every other State. And the Congress may by general Laws prescribe the Manner in which such Acts, Records and Proceedings shall be proved, and the Effect thereof.” Source: US Constitution) gives Congress the power to legislate on any issue on which states’ laws disagree, and then they could somehow order the taking of the slaves under the Takings Clause. (The major flaw in this argument is the words “by general Laws”; meaning that a specific resolution of which law supersedes which is not in Congress’ power. However, this is a question of phrasing and legislative language.) It might seem that this would violate the Dred Scott v. Sandford decision of 1857, in which it was ruled that slaves, as property, could not be taken from their owners without due process of law, but acts of Congress are generally considered to constitute due process, unless a court rules otherwise.
So one could argue that even if the South did not agree to have their slaves taken from them, the Takings Clause could justify it. But this would cause more resentment in the Southern states, for having their way of life removed from them. They could still well fight a war.