I’ve always used “cliché” as the noun form and “clichéd” as the adjectival form, as in “clichéd remark,” but lately I’m seeing “cliché” used for both. Have the barbarians taken over, or am I the barbarian?
Perhaps we both are, as I’ve always had the same usage.
In French, the past participle of clicher is cliché, so decide whether you are going to borrow that as-is or give it an ending to make it sound more like an English past participle. Certainly I can quote instances of either usage.
Certainement. But is “a clichéd adage” increasingly common and accepted?
The OED says "cliché” can be either a noun or an adjective. Its first citation of the adjectival sense is from 1895.
It’s common for a noun to be used as an adjective:
True but not relevant IIUC. No one’s claiming that “cliche” is an attributive noun.