In a recent post, I wrote the following:
Knowing how prone I am to mistypings and misspellings, I ran it through a spell checker. In addition to misspellings, my spell checker also checks for context errors; usually, in my opinion, incorrectly. In this case, it declared that convinced was wrong and the word I should be using was persuaded. I checked a dictionary and found that convinced does mean what I thought it did. But is there some subtle distinction here I’m missing?
Don’t know if this helps ya too much but from the site http://www.dictionary.com it explains it as
“Usage Note: According to a traditional rule, one persuades someone to act but convinces someone of the truth of a statement or proposition: By convincing me that no good could come of staying, he persuaded me to leave. If the distinction is accepted, then convince should not be used with an infinitive: He persuaded (not convinced) me to go. In an earlier survey, a majority of the Usage Panel held that this distinction should be maintained, but the use of convince with an infinitive has become increasingly common even among reputable writers, and it is unlikely that this stricture can be maintained for much longer.”
Hopefully this cleared it up for ya!
Ah! This is why I come here. Nemo, thanks for the question; Tiki, thanks for the answer.
Okay, I see the difference. Thanks MTG.
Or, you can depend on homilies:
“A man convinced against his will is of the same opinion still”.
nah. 
Copyeditor chiming in here . . . I preserve the distinction.
Vestal, according to Tom Burnam in The Dictionary of Misinformation, the quotation is: “A man compelled against his will…” not “convinced.”
Which makes a helluvalot more sense.