So now that the LBGT (LGBT?) community is partying it up with marriage in California, those opposed to it are sticking a constitutional amendment on the ballot in November to ban it. But as I recall, the Supreme Court ruled that gay marriage should be allowed. Can you pass an enforceable constitutional amendment when the Supreme Court has ruled that it’s unjust? Wouldn’t it take one measly little lawsuit, and the legal precedent from the Supreme Court’s decision, to make the amendment unenforceable?
Search is being weird. I found the thread on the same topic a little down the page. So ignore this one. 