Here’s a made-up example off the top of my head of what may be the two different approaches, taken from an area of law that has nothing to do with business law:
Question: Alice shoots at Bob, intending to kill him. However, Alice’s shot misses Bob and hits and kills Charlie, who she had no intention to harm. What crime, if any, has Alice committed?
Answer of the type the CPA exam might be looking for: Where one has the mental intention to cause someone’s death, known as malice aforethought, it does not matter that the person killed is not the person who was intended to be killed, so Alice has committed murder.
Answer of law school exam type: Although having formed the mens rea of malice aforethough, it is immaterial that the person whose death was caused by the defendant’s actions was not the intended victim, there are a number of reasons that Alice might not criminally liable for murder. If Alice were subject to sufficient provocation for a reasonable person to have acted as she did (and there were no suffient cooling off period), she might be only liable for voluntary manslaughter. Further, if she were subject to a mental disease or defect sufficient for her to be unable to understand the wrongful nature of her act, she might be absolved from criminal liability under the traditional M’Naughton test. In addition, the prosecution is responsible for proving all of the elements of the crime beyond a reasonable doubt, so if the prosecution fails to do so, or the jury engages in jury nullification, she may be acquitted. Moreover, depending on local law, she might also be liable for discharging a firearm within city limits. . . . . (for five more pages of what might possbily have happened).
You can see how a grader of a CPA exam type test, expecting the first answer, would look at the second and think the take had no idea what he or she was talking about, even though the second answser is entirely correct and contains in its first sentence what is essentially the response the grader was looking for.