This has come up several times in various SDMB threads but has never had its own. I am a subsciber to the theory that syphilis was an “import” from the New World to Europe (and through Europe to Asia and Africa) as described in this and several other articles and sources. My reasons for believing this are the timing (the first unmistakably recognizable diagnoses of syphilis appearing ca. 1500, its initial prevalence among sailors and coastal towns, and the remains of pre-Contact Indians (particularly in the regions of earliest Spanish contact) who had symptoms completely compatible with syphilis.
However, this seems to be a controversial theory. Some are outraged for purely PC reasons, but several medical historians disagree as well. What side do you take and what is the evidence that supports you? Also, could the 16th century syphilis outbreak have been a “superflu” brought about by New World & Old World strains of STDs intermingling?
Thanks for any opinions or info.