Did Syphilis Come From the New World or the Old World?

This has come up several times in various SDMB threads but has never had its own. I am a subsciber to the theory that syphilis was an “import” from the New World to Europe (and through Europe to Asia and Africa) as described in this and several other articles and sources. My reasons for believing this are the timing (the first unmistakably recognizable diagnoses of syphilis appearing ca. 1500, its initial prevalence among sailors and coastal towns, and the remains of pre-Contact Indians (particularly in the regions of earliest Spanish contact) who had symptoms completely compatible with syphilis.

However, this seems to be a controversial theory. Some are outraged for purely PC reasons, but several medical historians disagree as well. What side do you take and what is the evidence that supports you? Also, could the 16th century syphilis outbreak have been a “superflu” brought about by New World & Old World strains of STDs intermingling?

Thanks for any opinions or info.

Dunno. Looking through “Guns, Germs, and Steel,” author Jared Diamond leaves it open-noting however, that (as you pointed out)

Considering the dates involved and the rapid mutation from a form which rapidly burns through a victim (who would want to schtup someone whose face is sloughing off?) to a more benign ( and hence more readily spread) form, I’d be willing to consider that it arose in the New World.

A previous thread which might help…or not. http://boards.straightdope.com/sdmb/showthread.php?t=171647&highlight=syphilis

…and another…http://boards.straightdope.com/sdmb/showthread.php?t=140301&highlight=syphilis