Does anyone have good examples or references on discrimination of of Scandinavian immigrants in America, presumably in the 19th and early 20th century when the main immigration waves occured?
And: Does anyone know when the notion of an “Aryan race” originated? Apolgies but I just don’t want to wade through the results of typing “aryan race history” into a search engine.
According to Wikipedia, Swedes were the subject of racist stereotypes. Apparently they were seen as of below average intelligence and to smell of herring. The underlying citation is to a book so I can’t say if that’s accurate or not, but the World Heritage Encyclopedia makes a similar claim.
My father was a Scandinavian immigrant. I have never heard of him or any other northern European being discriminated against. Perhaps they got a bye because of association in the popular mind with the New York Dutch and Pennsylvania Germans (who were called “Dutch”), those two groups having been settled here well before the Revolution, and thus being among the original citizens of the new country.
I believe the word is derived from “Iran(ian)”, which I gather is what ancient Persian/Iranians called themselves.
Other way around, mostly. “Iranian” derives from the sasnkrit ārya. Actually, it’s close enough you could argue it’s the exact same word, just with a heavy accent.
As a (somewhat) Norwegian-American, I always thought Ole and Lena jokes were terrifically funny, but clearly they’re in the same vein as polack jokes. (Yes, I’m using the politically incorrect name, because we’re asking about political incorrectness.)
ETA:
Huh. I’m also somewhat Swedish-American, and my Swedish forebear was an unapologetic Hansen. Go figure.
A long (6’) heeled pry bar used on the railway to lift ties and rails and to pry up spikes was often called a Swede bar, after Swedish immigrants who worked on railways in the first 2-3 decades of the 20th century. Such work was considered unskilled and fit for ignorant labourers, thus the nickname. Ditto for logging and the “Swedish fiddle,” a crosscut saw.
Apparently the word was among other things associated with Iranian/Persian royalty, and means something like “owner”, “possessor”, or “lord”. The article mentions Sanskrit occurrence of the word, but does not say if the Iranian version was a borrowing from Sanskrit, or if both Sanskrit and Persian versions are descended from a common ancestor.
Here is another article from the Encyclopedia Iranica on the precise word Aryans.
(from link):
I had thought that “Aryan” was originally an exact scholarly synonym for “Indo-European.” Apparently, though, as a linguistic term “Aryan” referred only to the easternmost groups of Indo-European speakers. To my ear “Aryan” is more euphonious than Indo-Iranian, but the latter is more descriptive, and the former will never recover from its association with Nazism, even though the Nazis stole it and perverted it from its original meaning.
A surprisingly large number of people don’t know that English is a Germanic language.
I similarly thought that the term “Aryan” came out of early Indo-European research and its discovery that Sanskrit, Persian/Farsi, Greek, Latin, Germanic languages, Celtic languages, etc. were all related. If the languages are all related, then maybe the people who speak those languages are too, and form some sort of super-race of smart people who have set up many of the most awesome civilizations on Earth.
Thank you all. The reason I asked is that I’ve seen cartoons from that time trying to redefine the Irish as black. And some stuff about discrimination of Scandinavians. While there was obviously a firm white/black distinction at the time, things like the Irish being considered black and no-one selling insurance to Norwegian immigrants (Thats how the Sons of Norway started), it made me wonder at how various immigrant groups at the time were ethnically discriminated against that today would be seen as entirely white.
When did the concept of …“sub-races” for want of a better word, Aryans and Mediterraneans and Slavs, get established in the public consiousness?