A co-worker and I were talking politics: he claims to be a strict constitutionalist, and certainly questioning him on different aspects of his political ideaology leads me to believe he is what he says. In his opinion, compassion, empathy, emotion all should be completely separate from politics and policy. “Take your compassion to the charitable organizations and take your logic to policy.” I can’t say that I disagree with this statement.
Anyway, we were discussing the preamble of the Constitution, and the Federalist papers (FP), and the language skills of that era. For instance, in the FP, in the very first one, the writer uses the word “emolument” to mean the pay that is received by a person in office. That was a very precise word, that meant exactly what they wanted to convey. We then applied that concept of precise language to the Preamble of the Constitution:
So to apply this idea of precision: they wish to Establish Justice, Provide for the common defense and Promote the General Welfare. The word Promote is the key: as promote means “To forward, further, encourage”. If per the Preamble, the federal government is only to encourage general welfare, then technically (you knew this was coming) all of the social safety net is against the constitution. If they wanted to “Provide for” the general welfare, they could have said that, but they didn’t.
I can’t really say that I disagree with what he’s said - but in my gut, it “feels” wrong. But again, isn’t it in the best interests of everyone to take emotion out of policy-making decisions? That certainly rings true from a logic perspective.
I know this is really long, and my apologies for it, but its a tough question I’ve been wrestling with for a couple of days, and I figured you guys are the best debaters I’ve encountered, and with basically all sides represented on this site, I’m better able to get a thoughtful response. Is there a way to argue against his points? What am I missing that either sinks his argument or makes it unassailable?
