KellyM, I must confess that I’m a bit confused. This may be because I’m entering the discussion late–so perhaps I missed
something in the lightning-speed skim I had through the thread when I first entered the fray a couple of days ago. If that’s the case I apologize.
Assuming, for the moment, that I didn’t miss something relevant, I’m not clear, KellyM., on your position with respect to E.
I can understand why you are asking Eonwe to explain the importance that E. attributes to sexual difference, in addition to other questions as E’s understanding of the nature of sexual difference (male vs. female), and its relation to gender (masculine, femininine, androgynous, what have you).
But now it seems as though you are pushing E. to prove that sexual difference (male/female) exists–historically and otherwise.
Personally, I think that history is exactly what ought to be consulted in this case. Your example of slavery tell us why. Yes, it’s true that slavery was once thought morally appropriate is now thought morally heinous. And that provides us with proof that definitions of morality vary across time; that “morality” is not a question of fixed, transcendent truths. But in doing so history also provides us with proof that slavery existed: there was, in other words, a real (material, legal) condition of slavery in, say, ante-bellum United States history.
I’d say the same thing about history and its relation to gender and sex. What history shows us time and time again is that the meanings that have been attached to the anatomical fact of sex vary, sometimes dramatically, across times and across cultures. So, by analogy to the latter I’d say that the meanings associated with “gender” are historically variable; but I don’t see any particular need or benefit to go further by trying to erase the material fact of anatomical difference.
And I’m not really clear that that’s what you’re trying to do. But I do think you may be conveying that impression. What burden of proof do you want Eonwe to bear?