Does a common-law marriage 'count' twards a charge of bigamy?

[Contrapuntal]

@Zoggie

Well, since he won when his common law wife tried to sue him (despite the fact that they did not formally dissolve the marriage), in this case I assume there was no need to use the word “bigamy.”

What was she suing him for? Divorce? Child support? Alimony? To prove that she was his common law wife? If that is the case, she lost, so she wasn’t, and the point is lost.

Formally dissolve what marriage? Where do you see a reference to that in the link? She claimed they were married, he said they weren’t, and the court agreed, (if that’s what the suit was about. If it wasn’t, again, the point is lost.)

Is there anything in that link that suggests that he was married to more than one person at one time? I have no idea, but the Wiki cite says nothing about it.

[Contrapuntal]

@Epimetheus

:dubious:

You have to see the word bigamy to believe the topic is about bigamy? Wow, that’s some bad reading comprehension.

No need to be a smartass. See my response to Zoggie.

Bigamy is a criminal offense. Suits are filed in civil court. What makes you think that bigamy was at issue? The totally made up “undissolved marriage?” For the sake of the argument, let’s grant that she was claiming he was married to her while married to someone else. She lost. So he wasn’t. No bigamy.

I asked where in the cite was the reference to bigamy. At best, it is alleged, and subsequently disproven. How does “Ask William Hurt” shed any light on the subject of the OP?