Imagine I live in a state that recognizes common-law marriage. My partner and I perform all of the motions required to have undergone such (live together for the prescribed period, refer to ourselves as husband and wife, etc) but the relationship is neither solemnized nor recorded. After a while, ardor cools and we go our separate ways, but without any formal divorce. Some time later, I get married agian – either a ‘formal’ marriage, or another common-law one. Can I be charged with bigamy at this point?
It varies from state to state, but a general trend is that once in a common law marriage, you are married and there’s no such thing as a common law divorce. You must go through the normal procedures to dissolve a common law marriage.
Telemark is right; a common-law marriage generally has to be dissolved by a formal divorce. And for this part:
You couldn’t get into another common-law marriage at that point. One of the requirements for a common-law marriage to be valid is that both parties must be legally able to marry: Of age, mentally competent, not already married, etc. So either of these attempted subsequent marriages would be void from the start.
Given that in many (all?) locations, acting as man and wife and representing yourselves as such is an element of said marriages, it should be evident to any would-be polygamists that they’re NOT free and clear.
If I understand that correctly, if one ends a marriage (either common-law or conventional), but without any sort of divorce, and then goes through all the motions of entering into a common-law marriage, then this latter marriage has no legal meaning, and therefore there cannot be any charge of bigamy.
But that doesn’t sound right. To be guilty of bigamy, does the second marriage have to be a conventional one, or can it even be a common-law one?
Good question.
You do realize that this story has to be played out in the '80s or earlier, right?
Common-law marriages exist in several states, but they need to have been entered into prior to a cut-off date that was set a decade or more ago in those states that used to recognize them.
I have a question–what if you represent yourself as being married to more than one person? That is, you act like you’re married to more than one person, live together, etc. I guess I’m wondering if something like the situation in “Big Love” is subject to the law. I always assumed not, since the main character, Bill, is legally married to one wife and has two other wives that he’s not married to. Generally, he only presents one wife to the world. If he went around acting like he was married to all three, would that be wrong?
Is there a statute of limitations on bigamy of this sort? In order to prove a charge of bigamy, you’d have to prove that a prior common-law marriage did, in fact, exist. It seems to me that to get beyond a he-said she-said situation you’d need eyewitness testimony from people who observed the couple in question, since the marriage is, in part, defined by their public behavior. That testimony would get cold after a while, I’d think.
Any bigamous marriage is void. If this were the rule, nobody could be convicted of bigamy.
While this case is older (1925) and has a weird fact pattern, it suggests that a common-law marriage can be bigamous, and also gives another ground for rejecting the second-marriage-is-void argument:
Green was convicted and the Utah Supreme Court upheld his conviction. The Court didn’t decide the common-law marriage-bigamy question because Green didn’t brief it properly.
Some of you may remember my threads about the craziness I am still going through over my father-in-law’s death. After his girlfriend claimed to be his wife both to their friends and neighbors in Alabama and on his death certificate, we discovered she was still legally married to another. She used the claim of being common law wife to take property and empty his bank accounts and yet Florida doesn’t consider it bigamy even though they do acknowledge other state’s common law unions. So apparently to the OP, it may count as bigamy but I doubt anyone cares enough to do anything about it.
Well, since he won when his common law wife tried to sue him (despite the fact that they did not formally dissolve the marriage), in this case I assume there was no need to use the word “bigamy.”